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மண்டையில போடுறது DYE...
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மண்டைய போட்டா DIE...!!

Marriage Contract, - * Marriage aftera haraam relationship in which there was no zina

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A man and a woman repented from an unlawful sexual relationship, but they continued to kiss and embrace, but without a sexual relationship, then they got married after that. Is this marriage permissible?.
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Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
A relationship between a man and a woman outside of marriage, which is what is called an unlawful relationship, is haraam, regardless of the level of this relationship and whether it goes as far as an intimate relationship or zina (sexual relationship), which is the most reprehensible and abhorrent type of sins and one of the gravest of major sins that poses the greatest danger to the individual’s religious commitment and faith, or it is less than that, such as looking, touching or kissing. All of that is haraam and these are types of zina in the general sense, and are things that lead to the greater immoral action.
See the answers to questions no. 27259, 23349and 9465.
Secondly:
If marriage takes place after a haraam relationship between a man and woman, then one of the following scenarios must apply:
1.
Either that marriage comes after an illegitimate sexual relationship, in which case the marriage is not valid except on the condition that both the man and woman repent from zina and it be established that the woman is not pregnant as a result of the haraam relationship, because Allah, may He be exalted, says (interpretation of the meaning):“The adulterer/fornicator marries not but an adulteress/fornicatress or a Mushrikah; and the adulteress/fornicatress, none marries her except an adulterer/fornicater or a Mushrik [and that means that the man who agrees to marry (have a sexual relation with) a Mushrikah (female polytheist, pagan or idolatress) or a prostitute, then surely, he is either an adulterer/fornicator, or a Mushrik (polytheist, pagan or idolater). And the woman who agrees to marry (have a sexual relation with) a Mushrik (polytheist, pagan or idolater) or an adulterer/fornicator, then she is either a prostitute or a Mushrikah (female polytheist, pagan, or idolatress)]. Such a thing is forbidden to the believers (of Islâmic Monotheism)” [al-Noor 24:3].
For more information please see the answer to questions no. 85335and 11195.
2.
That marriage comes after a haraam relationship, but the relationship did not go as far as zina, such as kissing, touching and other haraam actions that are less serious than zina. In this case the marriage is valid, because it cannot be said of those who fell into this haraam relationship that they committed zina.
And Allah knows best.
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ஒருவர் : டாக்டர் செலவு மட்டும் எனக்கு மாசம் ஐந்நூறு ரூபாய் ஆகுது
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மற்றொருவர் : டாக்டரோட செலவைப் போய் நீங்க ஏன் பண்றீங்க?

Marriage Contract, - * He married her then he found out that her name was false

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I got married one year ago and I fulfilled all the conditions of marriage that I was aware of, such as the agreement of the woman's guardian, witnesses, the mahr (dowry) and so on. Before we got married she told me that her full name was “A M D”, as it appeared on her official papers. One year later I found out that her name is “A S Y” and that she changed the names of her father and grandfather to names that have nothing to do with the originals so that it would be easier for her to enter the Kingdom, and she made me use her false name for one year, and she did not tell me the truth. It should be noted that she always lies, even about the most trivial matters. Is this marriage contract invalid? Please note that I never heard her true name even from her guardian when the marriage contract was done.
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Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
It is not one of the essential parts or conditions of marriage that correct names be used; rather it is sufficient to specify the woman to whom marriage is proposed and with whom the marriage contract is done. If there is some error in the name or a false name is given, that does not affect the validity of the marriage.
It says inal-Sharh al-Mumti‘by Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (49, 48, 12), in a discussion on the conditions of marriage:
1.
Specifying the partners: because the marriage contract has to do specifically with them, the husband and wife. It is a serious matter on which rulings on lineage, inheritance and rights depend. Hence it is essential to specify who the partners are. It is not acceptable to say “I give my daughter in marriage to one of your sons” or “I give my daughter in marriage to one of these two men: of “I give my daughter in marriage to a student in the college.” Rather it is essential to be specific. And it is also essential to be specific with regard to the wife, and say (for example): “I give you my daughter in marriage.”
There are several ways of specifying:
(i) By pointing and saying “I give this daughter of mine to you in marriage,” and (the groom) says, “I accept.”
(ii) By naming her, such as saying “I give my daughter Faatimah to you in marriage,” and he has no other daughter by this name.
(iii) By mentioning her with some distinguishing characteristic, such as saying, “My daughter who completed grade ten this year” or “My tall/short/fair/dark/blind daughter” and so on
(iv) By mentioning some real fact, such as saying “I give my daughter to you in marriage,” when he has no other daughter.
End quote.
So in terms of validity, the marriage is valid.
But what this woman did is something that is haraam and there is no difference of scholarly opinion with regard to that. For a Muslim to attribute himself to someone other than his father is something that the scholars regard as a major sin, because of the stern warnings that are narrated concerning it. This has been discussed previously in the answers to questions no. 638and 1942.
What she has to do is repent from that action of hers and correct her name. She should fear Allah when speaking and not speak anything but the truth, for speech may lead to Paradise or to Hell. The Muslim has to strive when speaking to seek the truth, justice, honesty and fairness.
And Allah knows best.
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