For children, - Right Speech: Key to happiness and success

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There is a Chinese saying which carries the meaning that 'a speech will either prosper or ruin a nation.' Many relationships break off because of wrong speech. When a couple is too close with each other, we always forget mutual respect and courtesy. We may say anything without considering if it would hurt the other party.
A women and her millionaire husband visited their construction site. A worker who wore a helmet saw her and shouted, 'Hi, Emily! Remember me? We were friends in the secondary school.' On the way home, her millionaire husband teased her, 'Luckily you married me. Otherwise you will be the wife of a construction worker.' She answered, 'You should appreciate that you married me. Other wise, he will be the millionaire and not you.'
A little girl asked her father, 'How did the human race appear?' The father answered, 'Allah (SWT) made Adam and Eve and they had children and so was all mankind made.' Two days later the girl asked her mother the same question. The mother answered, 'Many years ago there were monkeys from which the human race evolved.' The confused girl returned to her father and said, 'Daddy how is it possible that you told me the human race was created by Allah (SWT), and mother said they developed from monkeys?' The father answered, 'Well, dear, it is very simple. I told you about my side of the family and your mother told you about hers.'
Frequently exchanging these remarks plants the seed for a bad relationship. It's like a broken egg - cannot be reversed.

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Women in Ramadaan, - Dought & clear, - * If the bleeding lasts for more than 15 days is it still regarded as menstruation, and can she fast?

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I jst want to know that i have menhorrehia and my periods are irregular if i go over 10 or 15 days am i allowed to pray or not?.
Praise be to Allaah.
There is no definitive evidence in sharee’ah to prove the minimum or maximum length of menses. Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen was asked: Is there a definitive number of days for the minimum or maximum length of menses?
He replied:
There is no definitive number of days for the minimum or maximum length of menses, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“They ask you concerning menstruation. Say: that is an Adha (a harmful thing for a husband to have a sexual intercourse with his wife while she is having her menses), therefore, keep away from women during menses and go not unto them till they are purified (from menses and have taken a bath)”
[al-Baqarah 2:222]
So Allaah did not make the period of abstention a certain number of days, rather He stated that the period of abstention ends when the woman becomes pure. This indicates that the reason for the ruling is menstruation, and whether it is present or not. When menstruation is present, the ruling applies, and when the period ends the attendant rulings no longer apply. Moreover there is no evidence for putting a time limit on menses, even though there was a need (at the time of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him)) to explain the definition if any such definition had existed. If there was such a definition, it would have been explained in the Book of Allaah or the Sunnah of His Messenger (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him). Based on this, every time a woman sees the kind of blood which is known to women as being menstrual blood, then it is menstrual blood without that being restricted to a certain time, unless the bleeding is continuous and never stops, or it stops only for a short time such as one or two days in the month, in which case it is istihaadah (non-menstrual vaginal bleeding).
Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen, 11/271
Based on this, it is not permissible for you to pray except after the period has ended and you have done ghusl (full ablution). The ending of menstruation may be known from one of two signs: either the emission of a white discharge which comes at the end of the period, or by total cessation of bleeding.
And Allaah knows best.

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Women in Ramadaan, - Dought & clear, - * She was not certain that her period hadended, and sheprayed and fasted

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I did ghusl at night, at the time of sahoor, because I knew that my period would end that day, and I ate sahoor and I fasted and prayed as well. Nothing came out of me during the time from Fajr until the adhaan of Maghrib, and when I wanted to go and pray, I discovered that the period had ended. Are my fasting and prayers valid?.
Praise be to Allaah.
It is not permissible for a menstruating woman to hasten to do ghusl and pray and fast until she is certain that her period has ended.
A woman may know that her period has ended from the emission of a white discharge which is known to women. Some women know that their period has ended when the blood stops.
So a woman should not do ghusl until she is certain that the menses has stopped.
Imam al-Bukhaari (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
“Chapter on the beginning and end of menses; the women used to send to ‘Aa’ishah pieces of cloth on which were traces of yellow, and she would say: ‘Do not hasten until you see the white discharge,’ meaning thereby purification from menses. Bint Zayd ibn Thaabit heard that the women were calling for lamps in the middle of the night to see whether their periods had ended, and she said: ‘Women never used to do that,’ and she criticized them.” End quote.
Pieces of cotton refers to pieces of cloth which the women would use to check whether the period had ended. The white discharge refers to if they used the piece of cotton and it came away clean with no trace of yellow.
Al-Haafiz ibn Hajar said:
The scholars are agreed that the onset of menses is known from the emission of blood at the time when menstruation is possible, but they differed with regard to the end of menses. It was said that it is known by the cessation of bleeding, which is when something inserted into the vagina comes out dry; or it was said that it is when the white discharge appears – this was the view favoured by al-Bukhaari.
This also indicates that the white discharge is a sign of the end of the menses and the onset of the period of purity (tahaarah). The view that it is known from the cessation of bleeding is countered by the fact that a cloth may come out dry during the period and that does not mean that the menses is over. This is unlike the white discharge which is emitted by the uterus when the menses stops. Maalik said: I asked women about that and it is something that is known to them, which they recognize at the end of the menses.
Fath al-Baari, 1/420
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked: If a woman’s period ends before Fajr and she does ghusl after, what is the ruling?
He replied:
Her fast is valid if she was certain that her period had ended before dawn came. What matters is that the woman is certain that she has become pure (i.e., that her period has ended). Because some women think that they have become pure when they have not. Hence the women used to bring their cotton pads to ‘Aa’ishah (may Allaah be pleased with her) and ask them whether the sign of purity was there, and she would say to them: “Do not be hasty until you see the white discharge.”
Women have to wait until they are certain that the menses has ended. If a woman has become pure, then she should form the intention to fast even if she does not do ghusl until after dawn comes. But she should also pay attention to the prayer and hasten to do ghusl so that she can pray Fajr on time.
Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen, 17/question no. 53
The questioner did ghusl at a time when she was not certain that her period had ended, and she discovered later on that she was in fact pure, after sunset according to her own account.
Based on this, what she did was not correct, and her fast on that day was not valid, so she has to make up that day.
We ask Allaah to grant her beneficial knowledge and enable her to do righteous deeds.
And Allaah knows best.

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Women in Ramadaan, - Dought & clear, - * She saw the tuhr then she had some discharge – what should she do?

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My period lasted six days and on the sixth day the bleeding stopped. I used a piece of tissue to make sure, and a little bit of white discharge was coming out. So I did ghusl and my husband had intercourse with me that night, then I did ghusl and fasted (as it was Ramadaan). Then at Zuhr time I noticed some discharge in which there was a slight amount of red or yellow. I do not know what the ruling is. Do I have to make up that day or not?.
Praise be to Allaah.
We do not know what you mean by “a little bit of white discharge was coming out.” If what you mean is that you saw the white discharge which is the sign of purity (tuhr), then whatever yellowish or reddish discharge comes out after that is not regarded as menses, because Umm ‘Atiyyah (may Allaah be pleased with her) said: “We did not regard the brownish or yellowish discharge after the tuhr as being anything that mattered.” Narrated by Abu Dawood, 307; classed as saheeh by al-Albaani inSaheeh Abi Dawood.
Based on this, your prayer is valid, and there is nothing wrong with your having had intercourse, because you were not menstruating.
But if what you mean is that you saw that the discharge was still yellowish or reddish, this means that the menses had not yet ended. A woman should not be hasty in deciding that the period has ended when she sees yellowish or reddish discharge, no matter how little it is. The women used to send pieces of cloth to ‘Aa’ishah with yellowish discharge on them, and she would say, “Do not be hasty until you see the white discharge.” Narrated by Maalik, 130.
Pieces of cloth refers to what women use to check whether there is any trace of menses left or not.
See also question no. 66062.
Based on this, then you have to make up that day, because it is not correct to fast when one is menstruating.
With regard to intercourse, there is no sin on you in sha Allaah, because you thought that your period had ended, and you did not deliberately commit a haraam action. Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And there is no sin on you concerning that in which you made a mistake, except in regard to what your hearts deliberately intend”
[al-Ahzaab 33:5].

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Women in Ramadaan, - Dought & clear, - * Are these people obliged to fast? Are they obliged to make up the fast?

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There is a boy who used to fast Ramadaan before he reached the age of puberty. While he was fasting during the day in Ramadaan, he reached puberty. Does he have to make up that day? What about a kaafir who becomes Muslim, or a menstruating woman who becomes pure, or an insane person who regains his sanity, or a traveller who comes back home and was not fasting, or a sick person who recovers and was not fasting? What do these people have to do with regard to refraining from eating and drinking for the rest of that day and making up the fasts?.
Praise be to Allaah.
The people mentioned in the question do not all come under the same ruling. We have mentioned the difference of opinion among the scholars and some of their words in the answer to question no. 49008.
We can divide the people mentioned in the question into two categories:
The boy who reaches puberty, the kaafir who becomes Muslim and the insane person who regains his sanity come under the same ruling, which is that they must refrain from eating and drinking for the rest of the day, but they do not have to make up the fast.
As for a menstruating woman who becomes pure, the traveller who settles and the sick person who recovers, they come under one ruling, which is that they do not have to refrain from eating and drinking, and they do not benefit at all from doing so, but they have to make up the fast.
The difference between the first and second groups is that the first group attains the conditions of being obliged to fast, namely being an adult, being a Muslim and being sane. Once it is proven that they are obliged to fast, then they must refrain from eating and drinking, but they do not have to make up the fast because they refrained when it became obligatory for them to refrain, and before that they were not obliged to fast.
As for the second group, the command to fast is addressed to them so it was obligatory in their case, but they had excuses which made it permissible for them not to fast, namely menses, travel and sickness, so Allaah granted them a concession and allowed them not to fast. The sanctity of the day was waived in their case, but when their excuses ceased to exist during the day, they would not benefit from refraining from eating and drinking, but they have to make up that day after Ramadaan ends.
Shaykh Muhammad ibn Saalih ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
If a traveller reaches home and he is not fasting, then he is not obliged to refrain from eating and drinking, and he may eat and drink for the rest of the day, because refraining will not benefit him in any way, as he is required to make up this day. This is the correct view and it is the view of Maalik and al-Shaafa’i, and it is one of the two views narrated from Imam Ahmad (may Allaah have mercy on him). But he should not eat and drink openly. End quote.
Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen(19/question no. 58).
He also said:
If a woman who is menstruating or bleeding following childbirth becomes pure during the day, she does not have to refrain from eating and drinking, and she may eat and drink, because refraining will not benefit her in any way, as she is obliged to make up that day. This is the view of Maalik and al-Shaafa’i, and it is one of the two views narrated from Imam Ahmad. It was narrated from Ibn Mas’ood (may Allaah be pleased with him) that he said: “The one who ate at the beginning of the day, let him eat at the end of it” i.e., if it was permissible for him to eat at the beginning of the day, it is permissible for him to eat at the end of it too. End quote.
Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen, 19/question no. 59.
The Shaykh was also asked:
If a person does not fast during the day in Ramadaan for a legitimate excuse, is it permissible for him to eat and drink for the rest of the day?
He replied:
It is permissible for him to eat and drink, because he broke the fast for a legitimate excuse, and if he broke the fast for a legitimate excuse, then the sanctity of the day does not apply in his case, and he is allowed to eat and drink, unlike a man who breaks the fast during the day in Ramadaan with no excuse; in his case we say that he is obliged to refrain from eating and drinking, even though he is obliged to make it up. Attention must be paid to the difference between these two cases. End quote.
Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen, 19/question no. 60.
He also said:
During our discussion on fasting, we stated that if a woman is menstruating then she becomes pure during the day, the scholars differed as to whether she is obliged to refrain from eating and drinking, or whether it is permissible for her to eat and drink for the rest of the day. We say that two views have been narrated concerning that from Imam Ahmad, one of which – which is the well-known view of the madhhab – is that she must refrain from eating and drinking. The other view is that she does not have to refrain, and it is permissible for her to eat and drink. We say that the second view is the view of Maalik and al-Shaafa’i (may Allaah have mercy on them), and this is what is narrated from Ibn Mas’ood (may Allaah be pleased with him), because he said, “The one who ate at the beginning of the day, let him eat at the end of it”. And we say that what the seeker of knowledge must do with regard to matters concerning which there is a difference of opinion is to look at the evidence, and to adopt the view which he believes to be most correct and not to pay attention to any other opinion so long as he has evidence, because we are enjoined to follow the Messengers, as Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And (remember) the Day (Allaah) will call to them, and say: ‘What answer gave you to the Messengers?’”
[al-Qasas 28:65]
With regard to quoting as evidence the saheeh hadeeth in which the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) issued the command to fast ‘Ashoora’ during the day, and the people refrained from eating and drinking for the rest of the day, we say: they have no evidence in this hadeeth, because fasting the day of ‘Ashoora’ is not like a case when the reason for not fasting ceases to exist. Rather it is confirming the obligation of fasting. There is a difference between the cessation of a reason not to do something and confirmation that something is obligatory, because what confirming that something is obligatory means is that the ruling that it is obligatory was not there before, whereas the cessation of a reason not to do something means that the ruling is established but there is a reason not to follow it.
A similar case would be if a kaafir became Muslim during the day. If a person becomes Muslim the obligation is confirmed for him. And a similar case is if a boy reaches puberty during the day when he is not fasting; the obligation is confirmed for him. So we say to the one who became Muslim during the day: you have to refrain from eating and drinking, but you do not have to make up this day. And we say to the boy who reached puberty during the day: you have to refrain from eating and drinking, but you do not have to make up this day. This is unlike a menstruating woman who becomes pure; in that case the scholars are unanimously agreed that she has to make up that day. If a menstruating women becomes pure during the day, the scholars are unanimously agreed that if she refrains from eating and drinking for the rest of the day, that will not benefit her and it will not count as fasting, and she has to make up that day. Hence we can see the difference between confirmation of the obligation and the cessation of a reason not to do something. If a menstruating woman becomes pure, this comes under the heading of the cessation of a reason not to do something, and if a boy reaches puberty or, as the questioner mentioned, the fasting the day of ‘Ashoora’ was enjoined before fasting Ramadaan was enjoined, this comes under the heading of confirmation of obligation. And Allaah is the Source of strength.

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Taraaweeh prayers, - Dought&clear, - * Numbers of rak’ahs in Taraaweeh prayer

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have asked this earlier but did not get a satisfactory answer. My question is about Taraweeh Prayer in Ramadan. You have answered to me in a question before that Taraweeh should not be more that 11 rakat. It has been authentically reported that Muhammad SAAW prayed Taraweeh 3 times in Ramadan and it consisted 11 Rakah. Also the book by Shaykh Naasir-ud-Din Al-Albani (May Allah have mercy on him)، Qiyam and Taraweeh states that Taraweeh should be 11 Rakah. The sunnah is 11 Rakat. Now the question which is confusing and often becomes a discussion among brothers is whether the number of Rakat in Taraweeh should be 11 Rakat or 20 Rakat. Some people during Ramadan go to masjids where the Imam does 11 Rakats and other go to Masjids where the Imam does 20 Rakats. In most of the Hanafi Masjids around the US the Imam does 20 Rakat. The point to note is whether 20 Rakat or 11 Rakat the Imam completes the entire Qurran during Ramadan. The people are very sentitive about this issue and this issue becomes a topic in gathering in the United States. The people who pray 20 Rakat blame the other groug praying 11 as being wrong and the group praying 11 Rakat blames the group praying 20 as wrong. This is a big fitnah in the US. This leads to disunity. People always quote that in Prophets Mosque the Imam prays 20 Rakats and also in Masjid-ul-Haraam in Mecca the Imam prays 20 Rakat. Also those who during Ramadan go to Saudi Arabia for Umrah say that the Imam prays 20 Rakat. This is a confusion.
Please answer and explain to me the following issues:
1. The sunnah is to pray 11 Rakat then why is Prophets mosque in Medina and also in Masdid-ul-Haram the imam leads the people to pray 20 Rakat? Why? Why is this different from the sunnah?
2. Why are the number of Rakat of Taraweeh in Prophets mosque and Masjid-ul-Haraam 20 Rakat? Please explain to us so.
Praise be to Allaah.
We do not think that the Muslims should be so sensitive with regard to issues that are the matter of scholarly differences or make them the cause of division and fitnah among the Muslims.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) said, when speaking about the matter of one who prays ten rak’ahs with the imam, then sits down and waits for Witr and does not complete the Taraaweeh prayers with the imam:
It grieves us deeply that we find in the Muslim ummah a group which differs concerning matters in which differences of opinion are acceptable, and they take these differences as a means to cause division. Differences within the ummah existed at the time of the Sahaabah, yet they remained united. The youth in particular and to all those who are committed to Islam must remain united, because they have enemies who are laying in wait.
Al-Sharh al-Mumti’, 4/225
Two groups have gone to extremes with regard to this matter. The first group denounced everyone who prays more than eleven rak’ahs and said that doing so was bid’ah. The second group denounced those who do only eleven rak’ahs and said that they are going against scholarly consensus (ijmaa’).
Let us listen to what Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
Here we say that we should not go to extremes or be negligent. Some people go to extremes in adhering to the number mentioned in the Sunnah, and say that it is not permissible to do more than the number mentioned in the Sunnah, and they aggressively denounce those who do more than that, saying that they are sinners.
This is undoubtedly wrong. How can they be sinners, when the Prophet SAWS (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), upon being asked about night prayers, said that they are to be done two by two, and he did not specify any particular number? Of course the one who asked him about the night prayer did not know the number, because if he did not know how to do it, it is even more likely that he did not know the number. And he was not one of those who served the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) so that we might say that he knew what happened inside his house. Since the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) told him how to do it but did not say how many times, it may be understood that the matter is broad in scope, and that a person may pray one hundred rak’ahs then pray Witr with one rak’ah.
With regard to the words of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), “Pray as you have seen me praying”, this does not apply in absolute terms even for these people. Hence they do not say that a person should pray Witr with five rak’ahs sometimes and with seven rak’ahs sometimes and with nine rak’ahs sometimes. If we understand it in absolute terms, then we would have to pray Witr with five rak’ahs sometimes and with seven rak’ahs sometimes and with nine rak’ahs sometimes. But what is meant by the hadeeth is pray as you have seen me praying with regard to how to pray not how many rak’ahs, unless there is a text to state what the number is.
Whatever the case, a person should not be strict with people with regard to a matter that is broad in scope. We have even seen some brothers who are strict on this matter accusing the imams who pray more than eleven rak’ahs of following bid’ah, and they leave the mosque, thus missing out on the reward of which the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever stands with the imam until he finishes (the prayer), the reward of qiyaam al-layl will be recorded for him.” (Narrated by al-Tirmidhi, 806; classed as saheeh by al-Albaani inSaheeh al-Tirmidhi, 646). Some of them even sit down after completing ten rak’ahs, thus breaking up the rows of worshippers by sitting there, and sometimes they start talking and disturb the people who are praying.
We have no doubt that their intentions are good and they are doing their best to come to the right conclusion, but that does not mean that they are correct.
The other group does the opposite. They sternly denounce those who pray only eleven rak’ahs and say that they have gone against scholarly consensus. Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And whoever contradicts and opposes the Messenger (Muhammad) after the right path has been shown clearly to him, and follows other than the believers’ way, We shall keep him in the path he has chosen, and burn him in Hell — what an evil destination!”
[al-Nisa’ 4:115]
All the generations who came before you only knew the number as twenty-three rak’ahs, and they denounce anyone who says anything different.
Al-Sharh al-Mumti’, 4/73-75
With regard to the evidence quoted by those who say that it is not permissible to do more than eight rak’ahs in Taraaweeh, they quote the hadeeth of Abu Salamah ibn ‘Abd al-Rahmaan, who asked ‘Aa’ishah (may Allaah be pleased with her), “How did the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) pray during Ramadaan?” She said: “He did not pray more than eleven rak’ahs in Ramadaan or at other times. He would pray four, and do not ask how beautiful and long they were, then he would pray four, and do not ask how beautiful and long they were, then he would pray three. I said, ‘O Messenger of Allaah, will you sleep before you pray Witr?’ He said, ‘O ‘Aa’ishah, my eyes sleep but my heart does not.’”
Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 1909; Muslim, 738
They said: This hadeeth indicates that the Messenger of Allaah was consistent in his prayers at night in Ramadaan and at other times.
The scholars refuted this use of the hadeeth as evidence by saying that this is what the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) did, but the fact that he did something does not imply that it is obligatory.
The evidence that there is no set number for prayers at night – which include Taraaweeh – is the hadeeth of Ibn ‘Umar according to which a man asked the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) about prayer at night. The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Prayers at night are to be offered two by two (two rak’ahs at a time). If any of you fears that the time of dawn is approaching then let him pray one rak’ah as Witr.”
(Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 846; Muslim, 749)
If we look at what the scholars of the prominent schools of thought said, you will clearly see that this matter is broad in scope and that there is nothing wrong with doing more than eleven rak’ahs.
Al-Sarkhasi, who is one of the imams of the Hanafi school, said:
It is twenty rak’ahs, apart from Witr, in our view.
Al-Mabsoot, 2/145
Ibn Qudaamah said:
The favoured view according to Abu ‘Abd-Allaah (i.e., Imam Ahmad, may Allaah have mercy on him), is that it is twenty rak’ahs. This was the view of al-Thawri, Abu Hanfeefah and al-Shaafa’i. Maalik said it is thirty-six.
Al-Mughni, 1/457
Al-Nawawi said:
Taraaweeh prayer is Sunnah according to scholarly consensus. Our view is that it is twenty rak’ahs with ten tasleems, and it is permissible to pray it individually or in congregation.
Al-Majmoo’, 4/31
These are the views of the four imams concerning the number of rak’ahs of Taraaweeh prayer. All of them said something more than eleven rak’ahs. Perhaps the reasons why they said something more than eleven rak’ahs include the following:
1- They thought that the hadeeth of ‘Aa’ishah did not mean that this was the specific number.
2- A greater number was narrated from many of the salaf.
Seeal-Mughni, 2/604;al-Majmoo’, 4/32
3- The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to pray eleven rak’ahs and make them very lengthy, so much so that it used to take him most of the night. Indeed, one night in which the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) led his companions in praying Taraaweeh, he did not end his prayer until just before dawn, and the Sahaabah feared that they would miss suhoor. The Sahaabah (may Allaah be pleased with them) loved to pray behind the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) and they did not feel that it was too long. The scholars thought that if the imam made the prayer so long, this would be too difficult for the members of the congregation and that might put them off. So they thought that the imam should make the recitation shorter and increase the number of rak’ahs.
The point is that the one who prays eleven rak’ahs in the manner narrated from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) is doing well and is following the Sunnah. Whoever makes the recitation shorter and increases the number of rak’ahs is also doing well. A person who does either of these two things is not to be denounced. Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah said:
If a person prays Taraaweeh according to the madhhabs of Abu Haneefah, al-Shaafa’i and Ahmad, with twenty rak’ahs, or according to the madhhab of Maalik, with thirty-six rak’ahs, or with thirteen or eleven rak’ahs, he has done well, as Imam Ahmad said, because there is nothing to specify the number. So the greater or lesser number of rak’ahs depends on how long or short the qiyaam (standing in the prayer) is.
Al-Ikhtiyaaraat, p. 64
Al-Suyooti said:
What is narrated in the saheeh and hasan ahaadeeth is the command to observe night prayers during Ramadaan, which is encouraged without specifying a particular number. It is not proven that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) prayed twenty rak’ahs of Taraaweeh, rather that he prayed at night, with an unspecified number of rak’ahs. Then he delayed it on the fourth night lest it become obligatory for them and they might not be able to do it. Ibn Hajar al-Haythami said: There is no saheeh report that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) prayed twenty rak’ahs of Taraaweeh. The narration which suggests that he “used to pray twenty rak’ahs” is extremely weak (da’eef).
Al-Mawsoo’ah al-Fiqhiyyah, 27/142-145
So you should not be surprised that people pray Taraaweeh as twenty rak’ahs. There have been generation after generation of those imams (who used to pray twenty rak’ahs), and all of them are good.
And Allaah knows best.

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Taraaweeh prayers, - Dought&clear, - * Ruling on following the imam from the house

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What is the ruling on praying at home behind the imam when the minaret of the mosque is next to the roof of the house?.
Praise be to Allaah.
Prayer offered at home behind the imam is not valid.
It is not valid to pray with the imam who is in the mosque unless you are also inside the mosque, or you are outside the mosque but the rows are continual, such as when the mosque is full of worshippers and some of them pray outside, then their prayer is valid.
With regard to praying outside the mosque when there is room inside the mosque to pray, this prayer is not valid.
The Standing Committee was asked about a person who prays jamaa’ah in his house following what he can hear from the loudspeakers of the mosque, and there is no connection between the imaam and the person praying behind him, as happens in Makkah and Madeenah at the time of Hajj.
They replied:
This prayer is not valid. This is the view of the Shaafa’is and was also the view of Imam Ahmad, unless the rows reach his house and he can follow the imam by seeing him and hearing his voice, in which case his prayer is valid, as is the prayer of the people in rows that reach his house. But unless this condition is met, his prayer is not valid, because what the Muslim is obliged to do is to offer the prayer in congregation in the houses of Allaah (the mosques) with his Muslim brothers. The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever can hear the call and does not come, there is no prayer for him, except for one who has an excuse.” Narrated by Ibn Maajah and al-Haakim; al-Haafiz said: its isnaad meets the conditions of Muslim. And the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said to the blind man who asked him about praying in his house, “Can you hear the call to prayer?” He said, “Yes.” He said, “Then answer it.” Narrated by Muslim in hisSaheeh.
And Allaah is the Source of strength.
Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah, 8/32.

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Taraaweeh prayers, - Dought&clear, - * Communal du’aa’ after Taraaweeh prayer

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My question is about the saheeh Sunnah with regard to Taraaweeh prayer and what innovations have been introduced into it, and the communal du’aa’ after Taraaweeh prayer. May Allaah reward you with all good on my behalf and on behalf of the Muslims.
Praise be to Allaah.
With regard to the first part of your question, please see the section on Taraaweeh prayer and Laylat al-Qadr underthe heading of Fastingon this website.
With regard to communal du’aa’ after Taraaweeh prayer, this action is an innovation (bid’ah). The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said, “Whoever does an action that is not part of this matter of ours (Islam), will have it rejected.” Narrated by Muslim, 3243.
What was narrated from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) was that after Taraaweeh prayer he would say, “Subhaan al-Malik al-Quddoos(Glory be to the Sovereign, the Most Holy)”, three times, raising his voice on the third time.
Ahmad (14929), Abu Dawood (1430) and al-Nasaa’i (1699) narrated that Ubayy ibn Ka’b (may Allaah be pleased with him) said: The Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to recite in Witr “Sabbih isma Rabbika al-A’la(Glorify the name of your Lord, the Most High)…” [i.e., Soorat al-A’laa 87] andQul yaa ayyuha’l-kaafiroon(Say (O Muhammad), ‘O al-Kaafiroon (disbelievers))…’” [i.e., Soorat al-Kaafiroon 109] and “Qul Huwa Allaahu ahad(Say (O Muhammad), ‘He is Allaah, (the) One)…” [i.e., Soorat al-Ikhlaas 112]. And after he said the tasleem he would say “Subhaan al-Malik al-Quddoos, Subhaan al-Malik al-Quddoos, Subhaan al-Malik al-Quddoos(Glory be to the Sovereign, the Most Holy; Glory be to the Sovereign, the Most Holy; Glory be to the Sovereign, the Most Holy)”, raising his voice. Classed as saheeh by al-Albaani inSaheeh al-Nasaa’i, 1653.
Then in Witr prayer the imam will recite du’aa al-qunoot and the worshippers will say Ameen behind him, as Ubayy ibn Ka’b (may Allaah be pleased with him) used to do when he led the people in praying Taraaweeh at the time of ‘Umar (may Allaah be pleased with him). So there is no need to introduce this bid’ah. How true are the words of the one who said, “All goodness is in following those who came before, and all evil is in the innovation of those who came later.”
And Allaah knows best.

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Taraaweeh prayers, - Dought&clear, - * Delaying ‘Isha’ prayer in Ramadaan

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The imam in our mosque delays ‘Isha’ prayer for almost an hour in Ramadaan. Is this permissible?.
Praise be to Allaah.
The time for ‘Isha’ prayer lasts from when the red afterglow in the sky after sunset disappears until halfway through the night.
It is preferable to delay ‘Isha’ prayer so long as that does not cause any hardship to the people, because Abu Hurayrah (may Allaah be pleased with him) narrated that the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Were it not that it would be too hard for my ummah, I would have commanded them to delay ‘Isha’ until one-third of the night had passed, or one half.” Narrated by al-Tirmidhi, 167.
This hadeeth indicates that it is mustahabb to delay ‘Isha’ so long as that does not cause hardship to the members of the congregation. If it will cause hardship to them, then the prayer should be brought forward.
It was narrated that ‘Aa’ishah (may Allaah be pleased with her) said: The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) stayed late one night until most of the night had gone and the people in the mosque had fallen asleep, then he went out and prayed. He said, “This would be its time, were it not that this would be difficult for my ummah.” Narrated by Muslim, 638.
And it was narrated that Jaabir said, when he mentioned the times when the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) prayed: “He sometimes delayed ‘Isha’, and sometimes brought it forward if he saw that they had gathered early. But if he saw that they were coming late, he would delay it.” Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 1/141; Muslim, 646. SeeMa’rifat Awqaat al-‘Ibaadaatby Dr. Khaalid al-Mushayqih, 1/291.
In some countries the people are accustomed to delaying ‘Isha’ for half an hour or so after the time for it begins, so that people can break their fast at leisure and get ready to pray ‘Isha’ and Taraaweeh.
There is nothing wrong with doing this, on condition that the imam does not delay the prayer so much that he causes hardship to the members of the congregation, as mentioned above.
It is better to refer to the people who attend the mosque and reach an agreement with them on the time for the prayer, because they know best what suits them.
And Allaah knows best.

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Conditions for Zakaah Being Obligatory, - Dought & clear, - * If a woman trades her gold for other gold, is the year (for zakaah) interrupted?

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There is a woman who has gold that reaches the nisaab (minim threshold at which zakaah is due) but during the year she traded the gold that she had for other gold. Should she start counting a new year for the new gold that she bought?.
Praise be to Allaah.
No, she should not start a new year for it, rather she should complete the year that she was counting for the gold that she had first.
That is because the basic principle according to the scholars is that the one who exchanges wealth that is subject to zakaah for wealth of the same type should not start counting a new year, rather he should complete the year for the first wealth.
If he exchanges gold for gold, or silver for silver, or sheep for sheep, or camels for camels, or trade goods for trade goods, he should not stop counting the year because of that, rather he should complete the first year.
Ibn Qudaamah (may Allaah have mercy on him) said inal-Mughni(4/135):
If he sells wealth that reaches the nisaab for zakaah for which he was counting the year, for wealth of the same type, such as camels for camels, cattle for cattle, sheep for sheep, gold for gold or silver for silver, he should not stop counting the year, and he should count the year for the second (wealth) on the basis of the year for the first. End quote.
Shaykh Muhammad ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked about a woman who had gold that reached the nisaab, and during the year she exchanged it for other gold; should she stop counting the year and calculate a new year from the time of the exchange, or not?
He replied: The year should not be interrupted in this case, because this woman exchanged gold for the same type of wealth. End quote.
Majmoo’ Fataawa Ibn ‘Uthaymeen(18/45).
And Allaah knows best.

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Conditions for Zakaah Being Obligatory, - Dought & clear, - * Does a woman have to pay zakaah on the second part of the dowry?

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I have been married since October 2003. I traveled with my wife after marriage to the UAE. The deal with my father in law was to delay giving the mahr (dowry) till I obtain a flat in Egypt (our original country) then to buy the furniture by this money (this is the tradition in Egypt). There is also a second part of the mahr; it is to be paid in case of divorce or death (whatever happens first).
The question is:
What is the ruling on paying Zakat on the first and second part of the mahr, knowing that I do not have it, and it is more than the nisaab?
Do I have to pay Zakat on the mahr? How to give it out? Is it on me or on my wife, knowing that she does not work neither does she has a source of income?.
Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
So long as you do not have possession of the second part of the dowry, you do not have to pay zakaah on it. When you take possession of wealth that reaches the nisaab (minimum threshold) and one year passes since it came into your possession, then you have to pay zakaah on it even if you are saving it or keeping it to furnish the apartment and so on, unless you pay it towards furnishing the apartment or you give it to your wife as her dowry before one year has passed, in which case you do not have to pay zakaah on it.
Secondly:
The delayed part of the dowry is regarded as a debt that is owed to the wife by the husband, so the ruling on its zakaah is like the ruling on any other debt that a person owes to someone else. This is subject to further discussion among the fuqaha’:
(a)
If the debt is owed by someone who is able and willing to pay it off, and he can afford to pay it back when asked to do so, and he is not denying it or trying to delay it, i.e., you can get your money back whenever you ask for it, then zakaah must be paid on it every year, because it comes under the same ruling as wealth that is in the possession of the owner.
(b)
If the debt is owed by a poor person who has no wealth, or one who is denying it, and you have no proof of it, then no zakaah is due on it according to the more correct opinion, but when the owner takes possession of it, then in order to be on the safe side he should pay zakaah on one year, even if many years have passed. This has been discussed in the answer to question no. 1346.
Based on this, the delayed portion of the dowry (with which the furniture is to be bought) is a debt that you owe to your wife, so no zakaah is due from her or from you because you do not own that wealth.
Similarly, no zakaah is due on the delayed portion which the wife will not take unless there is a separation, because she cannot ask for it so long as she remains your wife, but if she decides to pay one year’s zakaah on it in order to be on the safe side, that is better.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked: Is it correct to delay giving the wife her dowry? Is it a debt owed by the man that he must pay? Is zakaah due on it?
He replied: It is permissible to delay the dowry and there is nothing wrong with that, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning): “O you who believe! Fulfil (your) obligations” [al-Maa'idah 5:1].
Fulfilling obligations includes fulfilling them and adhering to their conditions.
If a man stipulates that all or some of the dowry will be delayed, there is nothing wrong with that, but it becomes due if the contract stated that it is due on a specific date, or if no specific date is mentioned it becomes due when separation occurs as the result of divorce, annulment of the marriage or death of the husband. It is a debt owed by the husband that may be demanded when the specified time come if he is still alive, or after he dies, as with any other debt.
Zakaah must be paid by the woman on this delayed dowry if the husband is well off and is willing to pay the debt, but if he is poor then she does not have to pay zakaah.
End quote fromMajmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen(18/30).
And Allaah knows best.

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Conditions for Zakaah Being Obligatory, - Dought & clear, - * Zakaahin Ramadaan – should it be paid on all one’s wealth?

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I pay the zakaah on my wealth every year in Ramadaan, and I pay zakaah on the amount that was in my account in the previous Ramadaan only, i.e., wealth for which one year has passed. Is what I am doing correct? Or do I have to pay zakaah on everything that I saved during the year?.
Praise be to Allaah.
In order for zakaah to be obligatory, one year must have passed, i.e., one hijri year must have gone by since the wealth reached the nisaab (threshold at which zakaah becomes due). The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “There is no zakaah on wealth until a year has passed.” (Narrated by Ibn Maajah; classed as saheeh by al-Albaani inIrwa’ al-Ghaleel, no. 787).
The passage of one year is also a condition for zakaah on gold, silver, paper currency and animals of the an’aam class to be obligatory. [Translator’s note: the an’aam class of animals includes camels, cattle, sheep and goats].
Wealth that is earned during the year is of two types:
1 – That which is profit generated by other wealth. Zakaah on these profits is to be paid at the same time as zakaah on the principle is due.
2 – That which is independent wealth which is gained in a manner acceptable according to sharee’ah, such as inheritance, gifts and savings from one's salary. No zakaah is due on this until one year has passed from the date when it reached the nisaab.
The Muslim may pay the zakaah on all the wealth he has in Ramadaan, both for that for which one year has passed and for that for which one year has not passed, in order to expedite the zakaah, because of the report narrated by al-Tirmidhi, Ibn Maajah and al-Haakim, who classed it as saheeh, that al-‘Abbaas (may Allaah be pleased with him) asked the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) about expediting his zakaah before one year had passed, and he allowed him to do that. This hadeeth was classed as hasan by al-Albaani inSaheeh al-Tirmidhi, no. 545.
This is easier than calculating the zakaah for each part of his wealth independently, so that he will not get confused about his wealth and mix up the figures, which may result in part of the zakaah not being paid or in confusion as to whether the full of amount of zakaah has been paid or not.
And Allaah knows best.

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Conditions for Zakaah Being Obligatory, - Dought & clear, - * He owns shares, but is in debt. How should he pay zakaah?

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I have asked for Islamic finance from the Al-rajihee Company, in order to buy shares and pay in monthly installments. The total amount to be paid to the Al-rajihee Company is about 99.000 Riyals. I have paid 20.000 so far, and currently I am dealing in pure (non-mixed) shares, via Al-Rajihi. How should I pay zakat on my wealth? A brother said to me that if a person is in debt and is paying it off in monthly installments then he should not pay zakat. Please provide me with a detailed answer.
Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
The fuqaha’ differed with regard to debt: does it mean that one does not have to pay zakaah? There are two well-known views, one of which is that it does not mean that one does not have to pay zakaah, so if a person possesses the nisaab (minimum amount of wealth at which zakaah becomes due) and one full year has passed, then he must pay zakaah, no matter what his debt is. This is the view of al-Shaafa’i (may Allaah have mercy on him), and it is what is regarded as most correct by many of the scholars.
That is because of the general meaning of the evidence which indicates that zakaah is obligatory for everyone who owns the nisaab, and because the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allaah be upon him) used to send his workers to collect zakaah, and he did not tell them to enquire as to whether the owners of the wealth had debts or not. And because zakaah has to do with what one actually possesses, and debt is a commitment, so the one does not rule out the other.
Al-Nawawi (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: Does debt cancel out the obligation of zakaah? There are three opinions concerning that, the most sound of which according to our companions, which is also the view stated by al-Shaafa’i (may Allaah be pleased with him) in most of his new books, is that it is obligatory... To sum up, our view is that zakaah is obligatory, whether the wealth is hidden or apparent, and whether the wealth is of the same type as the debt or not. Our companions said: whether it is a debt owed to a human being or a debt owed to Allaah, such as previous zakaah, expiation, vows and so on. End quote.
Al-Majmoo’, 5/317
Shaykh Ibn Baaz (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: With regard to the debt that he owes, it does not rule out zakaah according to the soundest scholarly opinion. End quote.
Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn Baaz, 14/189
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (make Allaah have mercy on him) said: What I think is more likely to be correct is that zakaah is obligatory in all cases, even if a person has a debt which, if taken from a person’s wealth, will cause it to fall below the nisaab, except a debt which came due before the zakaah became due, in which case he must pay the debt, then pay zakaah on what is left after that. End quote.
Al-Sharh al-Mumti’, 6/39
It says inFataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah(9/189): The correct scholarly view is that debt does not rule out zakaah. The Prophet (blessings and peace of Allaah be upon him) used to send out his workers to collect zakaah, and he did not tell them: Look and see whether the people are in debt or not. End quote.
Based on that, you should look and see what wealth you have after one year has passed since acquiring it, and pay zakaah on it, even if your debt is greater or smaller than this money. But if you pay off the debt or part of it before zakaah becomes due, then you do not have to pay zakaah on that amount, only on what is left of the money.

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Fasting, - Doupht&clear, - * A teacher breaking his fast so that he can keep his voice loud

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My work involves teaching and so using my voice. Last year whilst fasting, being without water caused my throat and voice great distress. I had to drink water (but no need to eat) in order to sustain my voice. As a consequence I did not fast during school time, but made up for all the missed fasts during the Christmas holidays. Please let me know if this is allowed.
Praise be to Allaah.
Fasting Ramadaan is one of the pillars of Islam, and one of the most important religious duties. It is not permissible for the Muslim to take the matter lightly at all.
If there is a conflict between religious and worldly interests, the religious interests must take precedence.
Either you should try to reconcile between fasting and your work, which is easy in sha Allaah because many Muslims carry on fasting whilst working as teachers, or you should take leave from work, even if that is unpaid leave, during this month so that you will be able to fast.

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Fasting, - Doupht&clear, - * When is the bleeding following an abortion regarded as nifaas?

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Someon has just had an abortion, is it permissioble for her to fast or does she have to wait a certain period of time?.
Praise be to Allaah.
It is not permissible for a woman who is bleeding following childbirth to fast, and her fast is not valid. She has to make up the days that she missed because of nifaas (post-partum bleeding).
Nifaas is the blood passed by a woman because of childbirth.
But if a woman miscarries (or has an abortion), the blood that she passes is not considered to be nifaas unless the foetus had human features.
Human features do not appear in the foetus before eighty days of pregnancy, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “The creation of any one of you is put together in his mother’s womb for forty days, then he becomes a ‘alaqah(a piece of thick coagulated blood) for a similar period, then he becomes like a chewed piece of flesh for a similar period, then Allaah sends an angel who is enjoined to write down four things, and it is said to him: ‘Write down his deeds, his provision, his lifespan and whether he is doomed for Hell or destined for Paradise. Then the soul is breathed into him.” Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 3208.
This hadeeth indicates that a human being goes through a number of stages during pregnancy.
For forty days he is anutfah(mixed drops of male and female sexual discharge, for the next forty days he is a‘alaqah(a piece of thick coagulated blood), then for forty days he is amudghah(a lump of chewed flesh), then the soul is breathed into him after one hundred and twenty days have passed.
Human features begin to appear at themudghahstage, not before that, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“O mankind! If you are in doubt about the Resurrection, then verily, We have created you (i.e. Adam) from dust, then from a Nutfah (mixed drops of male and female sexual discharge, i.e. the offspring of Adam), then from aclot (a piece of thick coagulated blood) then from a little lump of flesh — some formed and some unformed (as in the case of miscarriage) — that We may make (it) clear to you (i.e. to show you Our Power and Ability to do what We will)”
[al-hajj 22:5]
Allaah described themudghahas being formed and unformed. What is meant by formed is that there appear on the embryo traces of how the body will look, such as the head, limbs, etc.
Based on this, if this woman had an abortion, if that happened before eighty days of pregnancy, then the blood she passes is not the blood of nifaas, rather it is istihaadah (non-menstrual bleeding) which does not stop her from praying and fasting, but she has to do wudoo’ for each prayer.
If the abortion took place after the soul was breathed into the foetus – i.e., after one hundred and twenty days of pregnancy – then the blood is definitely nifaas.
If the abortion took place between eighty and one hundred and twenty days, then the embryo should be examined. If it has human features then the blood is nifaas, and if it does not then the blood is istihaadah.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) said in his essayal-Dima’ al-Tabee’iyyah li’l-Nisa’(The Natural Blood of Women), p. 40:
Nifaas is not established unless the embryo expelled has human features. If she expels a small embryo that has no human features then her bleeding is not nifaas, rather it is bleeding from a vein, so it comes under the same ruling as istihaadah. The earliest at which human features may appear is eighty days from the beginning of pregnancy, but it usually happens at ninety days.
The woman in nifaas has to stop praying and fasting until she becomes pure. When the bleeding stops and she becomes pure, she should do ghusl and pray and fast. If the bleeding lasts for more than forty days, if the additional bleeding coincides with her usual menstrual cycle then it is hayd (menstruation); if it does not coincide with her usual cycle then it is istihaadah, so she should do ghusl and pray and fast, and do everything that women who are taahir (pure) do.
And Allaah knows best.

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Fasting, - Doupht&clear, - * A new Muslim wants to fast in secret

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I have a friend (girl)who has embraced islam recently.The conversion matter needs to be kept confidential for sometime.she has expressed sincere desire to fast,but as she is living in a hostel she would find it extremely difficult to conceal her fasting from other friends.she is in a dillema.I REQUEST YOU TO SUGGEST AS TO WHAT SHE NEEDS TO DO UNDER THE CIRCUMSTANCES MENTIONED ABOVE.
Praise be to Allaah.
We congratulate our sister for entering Islam and we ask Allaah to make her steadfast in adhering to His religion and to cause her to die as a Muslim, and to keep her on the straight path.
We advise our sister to avoid – as much as possible – places in which Allaah is disobeyed. We understand from the question that she is studying in a mixed place, and living in a mixed hostel. This involves sin and danger to her and to her religious commitment. Muslim sisters have to explain to her, in the best manner, the ruling on her situation and the dangers it poses to her, and advise her that she should leave if possible, and so long as that will not put her in an even worse situation.
Secondly:
It is not permissible for you to take girls as friends, or for her to take men as friends. Relationships between men and women are governed by Islamic sharee’ah, and sharee’ah does not give men and women the freedom to make friends with one another, because that opens the door to a great deal of evil. This is one of the traps of the Shaytaan by means of which he tricks people and makes them commit immoral actions such as shaking hands with them, being alone with them and things that are more serious than that.
Thirdly:
With regard to her fasting: she has to fast and it is not permissible for her not to fast. If she is among other students that is easier than if she was among her family and relatives. She can make the people think that she is not fasting by carrying a glass of juice – for example – and let them think that she is drinking it, or she can say that she is sick and mean thereby that she is sick at heart because of what people do, as Ibraaheem (peace be upon him) said: “I am sick” – or some other kind of permissible trick.
She has to fear Allaah and obey Him as much as she can, and whoever fears and obeys Allaah, He will give him (or her) a way out.
We ask Allaah to grant her strength.
And Allaah knows best.

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Fasting, - Doupht&clear, - * The hadeeth “Whoever fastswill have one reward and whoever breaks his fast will have two rewards”

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What is the meaning of the words of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), “Whoever fasts will have one reward and whoever breaks his fast will have two rewards”?.
Praise be to Allaah.
The well-known hadeeth concerning this is that which was narrated by Muslim in hisSaheehfrom Anas (may Allaah be pleased with him) who said: “We were with the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) on a journey. Some of us were fasting and some were not. We stopped to rest on a hot day. Those of us who had the most shade were those who had cloaks, and some of us shielded ourselves from the sun with our hands. Those who were fasting could not move and those who were not fasting got up and set up tents and gave water to the riding animals. The Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: ‘Those who are not fasting have gotten the reward today.’” (Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 3/224; Muslim, 1119). According to another version narrated by Muslim, he said: “The Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) was on a journey and some people were fasting and some were not. Those who were not fasting worked hard, but those who were fasting were too weak to do some kinds of work. He said concerning that, ‘Those who are not fasting have gotten the reward today.’”
The meaning of the two hadeeths is clear, which is that availing oneself of the concession allowing a person not to fast whilst travelling when it is difficult and is very hot is better than taking the more ambitious option which is fasting.
With regard to the hadeeth which you mentioned, I do not know of any source for it.
And Allaah is the Source of strength, May Allaah send blessings and peace upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon his family and companions.

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