For children, - Personal Perception

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Different people have different perception. One man's meat could be another man's poison.
Once Luqman (as), The Wise said to his son, "Oh son! Do not tie your heart in seeking the pleasure of people. You are not likely to succeed. Do not pay attention to what people say. Instead tell yourself always to seek the pleasure of Allah (SWT)."
Luqman (as), The Wise wanted this lesson to be always remembered and never to be forgotten. He thought of a way. So, he then told his son to ride a donkey and the son obeyed. The father followed behind on foot. They traveled in this way for some distance.
After some distance they came across a group of people. Seeing the son on the donkey, one of them said, "What an impolite and bad boy. The old father is walking on foot. The young son is comfortably riding on the donkey. This is no manner to show respect to one's father."
Father and son heard this. The son came down from the donkey. Luqman (as), The Wise rode on the donkey.
After some distance they came across another group of people. On seeing the father riding the donkey, the elder of the group said, "Oh you old man! This is not the way to bring up a son. You make him walk in the hot sun, while you sit comfortably on the donkey."
Luqman (as), The Wise paid attention to what the people said. He came down from the donkey. Both father and son walked on foot. The donkey walked in front. They went a little further.
People seeing them, said, "How foolish you are? You walk behind a donkey. Why don't you ride it?"
Luqman (as), The Wise and his son once again accepted what the people said. They both rode the donkey and went further. They came across a river. There was a bridge to be crossed. Some people were sitting there. They saw Luqman (as), The Wise and his son riding the donkey. One of them said, "It is very unkind and cruel of you two to ride on the poor donkey. The little animal can hardly take all your burden."
So taking this advice Luqman (as), The Wise and his son dismounted from the donkey. They traveled a little distance further. Looking very lovingly Luqman (as), The Wise said to his son, "You have heard and seen what the people said. It must have assured you, by now, that whatever you do or whichever way you move, one is not able to please the people of the world." You can never have everyone praise you, nor will everyone condemn you. Never in the past, not at present, and never will be in the future.
Luqman (as), The Wise pointed at the flowing river and added, "A person can build a wall across the river. It will stop the flow of the water. But it is not possible to shut the mouth of the people from criticism."
Very clearly, similar is the case in our world today. The tongue has no bone. It can speak even without thought. There are as many opinions as there are people in the world. It is very bad to find fault with the other person, especially when he is doing something good. A person can feel very hurt when he listens to all the tongues that talk loose. To avoid getting hurt by loose talk, a person can train himself. He can discipline himself to think. By thinking he can know what is wrong and void. When a person is sure that what he is doing will please his Master, Allah (SWT) the Almighty, then he must never worry what others speak. Thus, do not be too bothered by others words if your conscience is clear.
"We must do what we conceive to be the right thing and not bother our heads or burden our souls with whether we will be successful. Because if we don't do the right thing, we will be doing the wrong thing and we will just be a part of the disease and not a part of the cure." - E. F. Schumacher

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Taraaweeh prayers, - Dought&clear, - * Can he pray Witr twicein one night if he prays after the imam?

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I want to ask whether at the end of Taraaweeh prayer we should pray al-Shaf’ [two rak’ahs of naafil prayer] and Witr? I heard that the last prayer you pray should be Witr. Does that mean that if I get up to pray qiyaam al-layl I should pray al-Shaf’ and Witr again, or should I delay them until I pray qiyaam and then pray it?.
Praise be to Allaah.
If the Muslim prays Witr then he wants to pray qiyaam al-layl after that, he should pray them two by two, and he does not have to repeat Witr.
The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) commanded that the last prayer offered at night should be Witr, but this command is in the sense that is it mustahabb, not obligatory. See Question no. 37729.
Shaykh Ibn Baaz was asked:
If I have prayed Witr at the beginning of the night, then I get up to pray qiyaam at the end of the night, how should I pray?
He replied:
If you have prayed Witr at the beginning of the night then Allaah enables you to get up at the end of the night, then pray whatever you can two by two – without Witr, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “There cannot be no two Witrs in one night.”
And it was narrated from ‘Aa’ishah (may Allaah be pleased with her) that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to pray two rak’ahs after Witr sitting down. The reason for that – and Allaah knows best – was to show the people that it is permissible to pray after Witr.
Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn Baaz, 11/311
And Allaah knows best.

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Taraaweeh prayers, - Dought&clear, - * He is praying as an imam and he wants to delay Witr

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I am inshaAllah going to be acting as imaam for a group in taraweeh. We shall pray eight rakahs and then three for witr. Is it true that my last action before sleeping should be the witr or is this merely recommended as a prudent course of action by the Prophet (saw). If I am intending to pray tahajjud later at night would it be better for me to delay my own witr until then and not pray witr with the jamaah or can I still lead them with me intending a nafal prayer of one rakat and the congregation intending that to be their witr?.
Praise be to Allaah.
It is mustahabb for the last prayer that a Muslim prays at night to be Witr, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Make the last of your prayer at night Witr.” Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 998; Muslim, 751.
This command from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) is in the sense of it being mustahabb and preferable, not in the sense of it being obligatory and compulsory, because it was proven inSaheeh Muslim(738) from ‘Aa’ishah (may Allaah be pleased with her) that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to pray two rak’ahs after Witr whilst sitting down.
Al-Nawawi (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
The correct view is that he (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) performed these two rak’ahs after Witr sitting down, to demonstrate that it is permissible to pray after Witr, and to demonstrate that it is permissible to offer naafil prayers sitting down. He did not do that all the time, rather he did it once or twice or a few times.
The well known regular Sunnah prayers mentioned inal-Saheehaynand elsewhere in reports from ‘Aa’ishah and from a number of the Sahaabah inal-Saheehaynstate clearly that the last of the Prophet’s prayer at night was Witr. Inal-Saheehaynthere are many well-known ahaadeeth which enjoin making the last of one’s prayer at night Witr, such as “Make the last of your prayer at night Witr” and “Night prayers are two by two, and when you feel that dawn is approaching, pray one rak’ah”, etc. So how can anyone think, after reading these ahaadeeth and others, that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) regularly prayed two rak’ahs after Witr and made that the end of his night prayers? Rather what it means, as we have stated above, is that it is permissible to do so. This is the correct answer.
Shaykh Ibn Baaz also said, explaining the reason why the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) prayed two rak’ahs after Witr:
The reason for that – and Allaah knows best – is to show to the people that it is permissible to pray after Witr.Fataawa Islamiyyah, 1/339
So if you want to pray Tahajjud at night, it is permissible for you to pray Witr with the congregation, then to pray after that as many rak’ahs as you want two by two, and do not repeat Witr.
You also have the option of not praying Witr with the congregation, and delaying Witr so that it will be the last of your prayers at night.
In this matter you have to pay attention to the congregation praying with you; if there is no one else but you to lead them in praying Witr, and if your not leading them in Witr will lead to them not praying Witr or not praying it properly, then you should pray Witr with them.
Shaykh Ibn Baaz was asked:
If I pray Witr at the beginning of the night then I get up at the end of the night, how should I pray?
He replied:
If you pray Witr at the beginning of the night then Allaah enables you to pray qiyaam at the end of the night, then pray whatever Allaah enables you to pray two by two, without Witr, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said, “There cannot be two Witrs in one night.”
And it was narrated from ‘Aa’ishah (may Allaah be pleased with her) that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to pray two rak’ahs after Witr sitting down.Fataawa Islamiyyah, 1/339
With regard to your saying that you will pray one rak’ah with them, intending that as a naafil prayer and not Witr, this is not an action that is prescribed in sharee’ah, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Night prayers are to be offered two by two.” Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 472; Muslim, 749. Seeal-Mughni, 2/539.
Al-Haafiz said:
It was understood from this that naafil prayers should not be less than two rak’ahs, except Witr.
And Allaah knows best.

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Taraaweeh prayers, - Dought&clear, - * Giving a talk after four rak’ahs of Taraaweeh

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What is the shar’i ruling on giving a lesson after four rak’ahs of Taraaweeh prayer?.
Praise be to Allaah.
With regard to the lesson which some imams and preachers give after four rak'ahs of Taraaweeh, there is nothing wrong with it in sha Allaah, but it is better not to do that all the time lest the people think that it is part of the prayer and lest they think it is obligatory and denounce the one who does not do it.
The imam, teacher or preacher can draw the people’s attention to a few shar’i rulings, especially those that they need to know in this month of matters, provided that he does not do that every time.
Undoubtedly words such as these are more beneficial than going out or engaging in worldly conversations or raising one’s voice, and it is better than innovated dhikrs that some imams have introduced after completing four rak’ahs.
Shaykh ‘Abd-Allaah ibn Jibreen said:
Because people nowadays make the prayers short and do it in an hour or less, there is no need for them to have this rest, because they do not get tired or find it difficult. But if some imams separate the rak’ahs of Taraaweeh by sitting or by pausing to catch their breath, then it is better to use this rest to offer some advice or give a reminder, or to read from a useful book, or to give some tafseer (commentary) on a verse that the imam has recited, or to give a lesson or reminder of an Islamic ruling, so that the people will not leave or get bored. And Allaah knows best.
Al-Ijaabat al-Bahiyyah fi’l-Masaa’il al-Ramadaaniyyah(Question 2)
And Allaah knows best.

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Taraaweeh prayers, - Dought&clear, - * He prayed Taraaweeh before ‘Isha’!

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I entered the masjid late for taraweeh and I missed six rakahs. after the taraweeh I prayed the four rakah of isha that I missed. do I have to pray the six rakahs that I missed of the taraweeh?.
Praise be to Allaah.
It is not correct to pray Taraaweeh and then ‘Isha’. You could have joined the congregation with the intention of praying ‘Isha’, then when the imam said the tasleem after the two rak’ahs, you could stand up and complete the last two rak’ahs. You cannot pray qiyaam before ‘Isha’, rather it should be done afterwards, and after the regular Sunnah of ‘Isha’. The prayers that you did were simply voluntary prayers and not qiyaam.
Shaykh ‘Abd al-‘Azeez ibn Baaz was asked:
If a Muslim comes to the mosque and finds the congregation praying Taraaweeh and he has not yet prayed ‘Isha’, should he pray with them, with the intention of praying ‘Isha’?
He replied:
There is nothing wrong with his praying with them with the intention of praying ‘Isha’, according to the more correct of the two scholarly views. When the imam says the tasleem he should stand up and complete his prayer. It was proven inal-Saheehaynfrom Mu’aadh ibn Jabal that he used to pray ‘Isha’, then he would go back to his people and lead them in ‘Isha’ prayer, and the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) did not denounce that. This indicates that it is permissible to offer a fard prayer behind someone who is praying a naafil prayer. Inal-Saheehit is also narrated that in the fear prayer, the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) led one group in praying two rak’ahs then he said the tasleem and led the other group in praying two rak’ahs, then he said the tasleem, so the first one was his fard (obligatory) prayer and the second was naafil for him whilst they were praying fard. And Allaah is the source of strength.
Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn Baaz, 12/181
And the Shaykh also said:
The Sunnah is to pray tahajjud – in Ramadaan and at other times – after the regular Sunnah of ‘Isha’, as the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to do that. It makes no difference if the tahajjud is done in the mosque or at home.
Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn Baaz, 11/368
With regard to the Taraaweeh prayers that you have missed, you have the choice. If you want you can do them and if you want you can leave them. Taraaweeh is a naafil prayer, so you do not have to make it up as is the case with the five daily prayers.
And Allaah knows best.

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Conditions for Zakaah Being Obligatory, - Dought & clear, - * No zakaah is due if one ceased to own the nisaab (minimum threshold) before the year was complete

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A person bought 64 head of sheep from his mother and ownership passed to him, and there was only one month left before the year was complete for zakaah to be paid on them when they were in his mother's possession. He is asking about zakaah: should he pay the zakaah on them? Or does zakaah have to be paid on them as he only bought them a few days ago, and there was only one month left for the year to be completed when they were in his mother's possession?.
Praise be to Allaah.
Zakaah is due on sheep if they reach the nisaab or minimum threshold -- which is forty sheep -- and one full (Hijri) year has passed since they came into your possession, because of the hadeeth of Ibn Maajah (1792) from ‘Aaishah (may Allaah be pleased with her) who said: I heard the Messenger of Allaah (blessings and peace of Allaah be upon him) say: “There is no zakaah on wealth until one year has passed.” Classed as saheeh by al-Albaani inIrwa’ al-Ghaleel, no. 787.
The passage of one year is a condition of zakaah being obligatory on gold, silver, cash and an’aam animals (i.e., camels, cattle, sheep and goats).
If you ceased to own it before the year was completed, either because the property was destroyed or sold or given away and the like, then zakaah is not obligatory on it.
Based on that, zakaah is not due from your mother, because she ceased to own the sheep before one year was completed. And zakaah is not due from you for these sheep that you bought until one full year has passed from the time that you took possession of them.
And Allaah knows best.

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Conditions for Zakaah Being Obligatory, - Dought & clear, - * One who uses a tripto get out of paying zakaah is sinning and the obligation of paying zakaah is not waived in his case

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Some people use tricks with regard to zakaah. They have land or livestock and so on, and to get out of paying zakaah they sell it or exchange it before one year has passed. Does this action mean that the duty of paying zakaah is waived or not?.
Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
Undoubtedly using tricks to get out of shar’i obligations is a haraam action and the fact that the person is trying to trick Allah is something reprehensible and blameworthy according to all wise people. How can the Muslim dare to try to deceive Allah when he knows that Allah can see him and knows what he is hiding?!
Ibn al-Qayyim (may Allah have mercy on him) said, after mentioning that using tricks is haraam: The evidence that we have mentioned and much more indicates that it is haraam to use tricks and issue fatwas on the bass of these tricks with regard to the religion of Allah. The one who studies the hadeeths which speak of the curse will find that most of them refer to the one who regards as permissible that which Allah has forbidden and tries to avoid obligatory duties by means of tricks. For example, the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said: “May Allaah curse al-muhallil and al-muhallal lahu [The muhallil is the one who marries a woman and divorces her so that she can go back to her first husband, and the muhallal lahu is the first husband.]” and he said: “May Allah curse the Jews. Animal fat was forbidden to them, so they rendered it and sold it and consumed its price.” End quote fromI’laam al-Muwaqqi’een, 3/150
Al-Qurtubi (may Allah have mercy on him) said (9/137):
The scholars are unanimously agreed that before one full year has passed, a man may dispose of his wealth by selling it or giving it away, if he does not intend to avoid paying zakaah, and they are unanimously agreed that if one year has passed and the zakaah collector has come to collect it, it is not permissible for him to use tricks or reduce the amount he should pay.
Maalik said: If anything is disposed of from his wealth with the intention of avoiding paying zakaah one month or so before the end of the year, then he must pay zakaah.
Then he said: The one who tries to avoid any of the duties he owes to Allah by means of a trick will never prosper and Allaah will never accept any excuse from him. What the fuqaha’ permitted of disposing of some of one's wealth close to the end of the year only applies to that which is not intended as a means of avoiding paying zakaah. The one who intends to avoid paying it is sinning and the duty is not waived, and Allah will bring him to account. End quote.
Once this is established, it will be known that the one who has the slightest common sense, decency and religious commitment should not do any of these tricks which may be a cause of loss in this world and in the Hereafter. It may be that the heedless and deceived one is seeking thereby to increase his wealth and make it grow, but that will be a cause of it being doomed and diminished, or having no blessings in it, so that neither he nor his children will benefit from it. Or perhaps his wealth will be a cause of trouble for him and his offspring, so the Shaytaan will send against him his helpers to make him spend it on haraam things, pleasures and evil desires, as is no secret to the one who has seen how people are, especially the children of traders and other wealthy people who do not give what is due to Allah of their wealth and do not dispose of it in the way enjoined by Allah.
End quote fromFataawa Ibn Hajar al-Haytami(may Allah have mercy on him), 5/241
From the words of Imam Malik quoted above, we see that if a person uses tricks to avoid paying zakaah, the duty is not waived from him and that it does not benefit him. He still has to pay zakaah when one year has passed.
Ibn Qudaamah said inal-Mughni(2/285): If he does that in an attempt to avoid paying zakaah, the duty is not waived for him, whether what is exchanged is livestock or anything else that reaches the minimum threshold (nisaab). The same applies if he uses up or destroys part of the minimum threshold with the aim of making it fall below that threshold so that zakaah will be waived; it is not waived and the zakaah should be taken from him at the end of the year, if he sold it or used it up when the time for zakaah to become obligatory was approaching. But if he did that at the beginning of the year, no zakaah is due, because that is not assumed to be a trick to avoid paying. End quote.
Shaykh ‘Abd al-‘Azeez ibn Baaz (may Allah have mercy on him) was asked: Is it permissible for two or three men to put their flocks together for the sake of zakaah?
He replied:
It is not permissible to put together or separate wealth or property that is subject to zakaah so as to avoid paying it or in order to reduce amount paid, because the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said in the saheeh hadeeth: “Do not put together separate flocks and do not divide a flock so as to avoid zakaah.” Narrated by al-Bukhaari in hisSaheeh.
If a man has 40 sheep and he divides them so that no zakaah will be due on them, the duty of paying zakaah is not waived for him, and by doing that he is sinning, because he is trying to use a trick to avoid that which Allah has made obligatory. End quote.Majmoo’ al-Fataawa, 14/59.
And Allah knows best.

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Conditions for Zakaah Being Obligatory, - Dought & clear, - * He got a certified cheque in order to buy a house and one year has passed; does he have to pay zakaah?

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I got a certified cheque to buy a house but the title was only transferred two months later, because one of the heirs of the previous owner was a minor and the system appointed a trustee. This procedure meant that it took two months to transfer title of the house. Does zakaah have to be paid on this cheque? Please note that after these two months, the money had been in my possession for one year and one month, but I got the cheque one month before the year ended.
Praise be to Allaah.
If you gave the owner a certified cheque and the money indicated by the cheque was no longer under your control, then you do not have to pay zakaah because the money was no longer in your possession. If it was possible to cancel it and dispose of the money, such as if the cheque was still in your hands or the sale of the house had not yet been completed, then zakaah became obligatory on you when one year had passed, because if the cheque was still in your hand then you were still in possession of the money. If the sale had not been completed but we assume that you gave the cheque to the owner then it is regarded as a debt that was owed until the sale was completed, and it is obligatory to pay zakaah on debts that one is owed by other people.
You did not state whether you gave the cheque to the owner or not, or whether the sale had been completed and it only remained to hand over their house or it had not yet been completed. If you are uncertain about anything in this answer, then you may ask again with more details.
And Allah knows best.

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Conditions for Zakaah Being Obligatory, - Dought & clear, - * He got a certified cheque in order to buy a house and one year has passed; does he have to pay zakaah?

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I got a certified cheque to buy a house but the title was only transferred two months later, because one of the heirs of the previous owner was a minor and the system appointed a trustee. This procedure meant that it took two months to transfer title of the house. Does zakaah have to be paid on this cheque? Please note that after these two months, the money had been in my possession for one year and one month, but I got the cheque one month before the year ended.
Praise be to Allaah.
If you gave the owner a certified cheque and the money indicated by the cheque was no longer under your control, then you do not have to pay zakaah because the money was no longer in your possession. If it was possible to cancel it and dispose of the money, such as if the cheque was still in your hands or the sale of the house had not yet been completed, then zakaah became obligatory on you when one year had passed, because if the cheque was still in your hand then you were still in possession of the money. If the sale had not been completed but we assume that you gave the cheque to the owner then it is regarded as a debt that was owed until the sale was completed, and it is obligatory to pay zakaah on debts that one is owed by other people.
You did not state whether you gave the cheque to the owner or not, or whether the sale had been completed and it only remained to hand over their house or it had not yet been completed. If you are uncertain about anything in this answer, then you may ask again with more details.
And Allah knows best.

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Conditions for Zakaah Being Obligatory, - Dought & clear, - * Is zakaah required of one who is in debt?

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If a person is in debt that is equal to all the wealth that he has in his possession, or more than that, is he required to pay zakaah on the money that he does have, if one year has passed since he acquired it?.
Praise be to Allaah.
The one who has any “zakatable” wealth must pay zakaah on it, when one year has passed since he acquired it, even if he has debts, according to the more correct of the two scholarly opinions, because of the general meaning of the evidence that zakaah is obligatory upon everyone who has wealth on which zakaah is due, if one year has passed since he acquired it, even if he has debts.
The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to command his agents to take zakaah from those who owed zakaah, and he did not tell them to ask them whether they had any debts or not. If having debts meant that one did not have to pay zakaah, the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) would have told his agents to ask the people who were paying zakaah whether they had any debts or not.
Majmoo’ Fataawa wa Maqalaat Mutanawwi’ahby Shaykh ‘Abd al-‘Azeez ibn Baaz, 14/51
“… But if you pay off the debt with cash in hand before one year has passed, there is no zakaah on what you have spent to pay off the debt; rather zakaah is due on whatever is left, if one year has passed and it reaches the minimum threshold (nisaab).”
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked about a person who has capital worth two hundred thousand riyals and owed a debt of two hundred thousand riyals, and was paying it off at a rate of ten thousand per year – does he have to pay zakaah?
He replied:
Yes, he has to pay zakaah on the wealth that is in his possession, because the texts which speak of the obligation of zakaah are general in meaning, and do not make any exceptions. No exception is made for one who is in debt. As the texts are general in meaning, we have to follow them.
Moreover, zakaah must be paid on wealth, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Take Sadaqah (alms) from their wealth in order to purify them and sanctify them with it, and invoke Allaah for them. Verily, your invocations are a source of security for them; and Allaah is All-Hearer, All-Knower”
[al-Tawbah 9:103]
And according to the hadeeth narrated by al-Bukhaari from Ibn ‘Abbaas (may Allaah be pleased with him), when the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) sent Mu’aadh to Yemen he said: “Tell them that Allaah has enjoined zakaah from their wealth.” So Allaah and His Messenger have stated that zakaah has to do with the wealth itself, not with the person’s obligations towards others; debt has to do with personal obligations towards others. They are two separate issues, so zakaah must be paid from the wealth that is in your possession, and the debt is a personal responsibility.
Each person must fear his Lord and pay zakaah on the wealth that is in his possession, and seek the help of Allaah to pay the debt that he owes, saying: O Allaah, pay off the debt that I owe and make me independent of means.
Perhaps if he pays zakaah on the wealth that is in his possession, that may be a means of bringing blessing to this wealth and causing it to grow, so that he may discharge his duty of paying his debts. If he withholds zakaah, however, that may be a cause of his becoming poor, so that he always sees himself as being in need and not able to pay zakaah. Praise Allaah if He makes you one of the givers and not one of the takers.
Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen, 18/39
And he said, in another Fatwa on the same issue (18/38):
If the debt is currently due and repayment is being demanded, and he wants to pay it off, in that case we say: Pay off the debt, then pay zakaah on what is left after that if it reaches the minimum threshold at which zakaah becomes due.
That is supported by what the Hanbali fuqaha’ said about zakaat al-fitr. They said that being in debt does not mean that one should not pay it.
Similarly, it is reported that ‘Uthmaan (may Allaah be pleased with him) used to say during the month of Ramadaan: “This is the month of your zakaah, but whoever is in debt, let him pay it off.” This indicates that if a debt is currently due to be paid, and the debtor wants to pay it off, that should take precedence over zakaah. But if a debt is not yet due to be paid off, the zakaah must still be paid, beyond a doubt.
And it says inFataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah, 9/189:
The correct scholarly view is that being in debt does not mean that zakaah should not be paid. The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to send his agents to collect the zakaah, and he did not tell them to see if the people were in debt or not.

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Fasting, - Doupht&clear, - * He works for the military– is it permissible forhim not to fast in Ramadaan?

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I work for the military unit and the month of Ramadaan is coming. Is it permissible for me not to fast, knowing that my circumstances do not make it easy to fast?.
Praise be to Allaah.
It is not permissible for you not to fast in Ramadaan, and you are obliged to fast unless you are travelling or are sick with an illness that makes you unable to fast, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“and whoever is ill or on a journey, the same number [of days which one did not observe Sawm (fasts) must be made up] from other days”
[al-Baqarah 2:185]
“and [Allaah] has not laid upon you in religion any hardship”
[al-Hajj 22:78]
“Allaah burdens not a person beyond his scope”
[al-Baqarah 2:286]
And the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “If I command you to do a thing, then do as much of it as you can.”
And Allaah is the Source of strength. May Allaah send blessings and peace upon our Prophet Muhammad and his family and companions.









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