5a] The difference of scholarly opinion as to whether the Basmalah counts as a verse of al-Faatihah does not come under the heading of distortions of the Qur’aan

5a]
The scholars differed concerning the Basmalah: is it a verse at the beginning of each soorah, or only at the beginning of al-Faatihah, or is it not a verse at all? As for the words of Allah in Soorat an-Naml, “Verily! It is from Sulaiman (Solomon),and verily! It (reads): In the Name of Allah, the Most Beneficent, the Most Merciful” [an-Naml 27:30],this is a verse of the Qur’aan according to scholarly consensus.
With regard to Soorah Baraa’ah (at-Tawbah), the Basmalah is not a verse thereof, according to scholarly consensus. But there is a difference of scholarly opinion concerning other cases. Some of these scholars of Usool stated that the Basmalah is not part of the Qur’aan, and some said that it is part of it in al-Faatihah only. And it was said that it is a verse at the beginning of every soorah. This is the view ofash-Shaafa‘i (may Allah have mercy on him).
One of the best things that have been said concerning this matter, to reconcile between all the opinions, is that in some recitations, such as the recitation of Ibn Katheer, the Basmalah is a verse ofthe Qur’aan, and in some other recitations it is not averse, and there is nothing strange about that.
In the verse in Soorat al-Hadeed, “Fa inna Allahahuwa al-Ghaniy ul-Hameed (then Allah is Rich (Free of all wants), Worthy of all praise)” [al-Hadeed 57:24], the word “huwa” is part of the Qur’aan according to the recitations of Ibn Katheer, Abu ‘Amr, ‘Aasim, Hamzah, and al-Kasaa’i, and it is not part of the Qur’aan according to the recitations of Naafi‘ and Ibn ‘Aamir, because they recited it “Fa inna Allaha al-Ghaniy al-Hameed”. And in some Mushafs the word “huwa” is present and in others it is not present.
In the passage “so wherever you turn yourselves or your faces there is the Face of Allah (and He is High above, over His Throne). Surely! Allah is All-Sufficient for His creatures needs, All-Knowing. And they (Jews, Christians and pagans) say: Allah has begotten a son (children or offspring)” [al-Baqarah 2:115-116], the waw (in the phrase wa qaalu attakhadha Allahu waladan/and they say: Allah has begotten a son) is present in the recitationof the seven, except for Ibn ‘Aamir; according to the recitation of Ibn ‘Aamir it is not part of the Qur’aan, because he recited it as “Qaalu attakhadha Allahu waladan (They say Allah has begotten a son)”, without the waw. So it is omitted in the Mushaf of the people of ash-Shaam (greater Syria), and there are other exaples.
Thus it is known that it does not matter whether the Basmalah is regarded as a verse in some recitations and not others.The scholars are agreed on this point.
End quote from al-Madhkarah fi Usool al-Fiqh, p. 66, 67.
And Allah knows best.

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5] The difference of scholarly opinion as to whether the Basmalah counts as a verse of al-Faatihah does not come under the heading of distortions of the Qur’aan

5]
The Holy Qur’aan was transmitted to us by mutawaatir reports (in which it was narrated by so many from so many that it is inconceivable that they could all have agreed upon a lie), with nothing added or taken away, and no doubt concerning it, and Falsehood cannot come toit from before it or behindit (cf. 41:42). This is what we have learnt and grown up with.
My question is: how comethere was a difference of opinion among the scholars of the early generations as to whetherthe Basmalah (the phrase “Bismillah ir-Rahmaan ir-Raheem”) is a verse of Soorat al-Faatihah or whether it is a verse at all? Does this difference ofopinion matter? I am not looking for the evidence of one group or the other,and I am not looking for additional information about this issue from a fiqhi point of view. I have read a great deal of information and research. Rather my question here is: how can we justify differences of opinion concerning a verse of the Holy Qur’aan that was transmitted to us via mutawaatir reports, by large numbers (of narrators) from large numbers, and so on, as to whether it is a verse or not? Is it not the case thatthere should be no difference of opinion concerning this matter?.
Praise be to Allaah.
The Muslims did not disagree that Allah, may He be exalted, has preserved His Book from additions and subtractions, in fulfilment of His words (interpretation of the meaning):
“Verily We: It is We Who have sent down the Dhikr (i.e. the Quran) and surely,We will guard it (from corruption)”
[al-Hijr 15:9].
The Muslims are unanimously agreed that anyone who disagrees with this and claims that there is something in the Book of Allah that is not part of it, or that something that Allah revealed has been taken away from it, is a disbeliever.
Al-Qaadi ‘Iyaad (may Allahhave mercy on him) said:
The Muslims are unanimously agreed that the Qur’aan which is recited in all parts of the world and is written in the Mushaf that the Muslims have, that is contained between the two covers, from the first soorah “All the praises and thanks be to Allah, the Lord of the Alameen (mankind, jinns and all that exists)” to the last soorah, “Say: "I seek refuge with (Allah) the Lord of mankind”, is the Book of Allah and His Revelation that He sent down to His Prophet Muhammad (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him), and that everything in it is true, and that anyone who deliberately takes away a single letter from it or changes one letter for another or adds a letter toit, that is not included in the Mushaf on which there is consensus, and there is consensus that it is not part of the Qur’aan – the one who does any of these things deliberately is a disbeliever. End quote.
ash-Shifa bi Ta‘reef Huqooq al-Mustafa, 2/304,305
With regard to the difference of opinion among the scholars as to whether the Basmalah is counted as a verse of the Qur’aan or not, this does not come under this heading, because the scholars of Qur’aan recitation did not differ with regard to reciting it at the beginning of the soorahs. And the Sahaabah (may Allah be pleased with them) were unanimously agreed that it must be written at the beginning of all soorahs apart from Soorat at-Tawbah, and that is in the Mushaf that was written by ‘Uthmaan ibn ‘Affaan (may Allah be pleased with him) and sent to all regions.
Ash-Shawkaani (may Allahhave mercy on him) said, when discussing the Basmalah:
It should be noted that the ummah is unanimously agreed that neither the one who affirms it nor the one whodenies it is to be described as a disbeliever,because of the difference of scholarly opinion concerning it. This is different from the case of a person who denies a letter on which there is consensus or who affirms something that no one said; he is to be regarded as a disbeliever according to scholarly consensus.
There is no difference of opinion concerning the fact that it is a verse in Soorat an-Naml, or that it is a line to be written at the beginning of the soorahs in the Mushaf, apart from the beginning of Soorat at-Tawbah.
Nayl al-Awtar, 2/215
Some of the scholars regard the difference of opinion as to whether theBasmalah is a verse of theQur’aan as being like the difference of opinion among the leading scholars of recitation about some words and letters that may be proven in some recitations and not in others.
Shaykh Muhammad al-Ameen ash-Shanqeeti (may Allah have mercy onhim) said: :->
:-* key word:- The Quraan and its Sciences

What is the ruling on voice-acting on the radio?

What is the ruling on voice-acting on the radio?I have searched a great deal on all the websites ofthe senior shaykhs such asShaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen, Shaykh Ibn Baaz, and others, and I could not find any clear answer.
Praise be to Allaah.
There are previous answers dealing with acting and what is connected to it. Please seethe answers to questions no. 10836 and 22442 .
In the answer to question no. 14488 there is a fatwaof the Standing Committee which states that it is haraam to act the part of any of the Companions of the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) in movies, plays and so on.
In those answers it also says:
1.
There is no difference between voice acting and acting that is seen.
2.
There is no difference of opinion among the scholars that acting whichinvolves indecency, free mixing or any haraam content or actions is haraam.
3.
None of the scholars permit acting in general terms; rather they have stipulated conditions and guidelines.
4.
It is not appropriate to doa great deal of permissible acting -- according to those who say that it is permissible --even if that is for the sakeof calling people to Allah.
After searching a great deal, we did not find any fatwa by any of our seniorscholars that speaks specifically of voice acting.What seems to be the case is that there is no difference between voice acting on the radio and acting that is seen, as it is all acting, whether the view is that it is permissible or that it is forbidden. But there is no doubt that acting that is seen is more serious in terms of fitnah and causesmore corruption, because temptation caused by a living, visible image is notthe same as temptation caused by a voice that is merely heard. But we are speaking of acting in and of itself, regardless of what other things may accompany it.
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Prohibition on anticipating Ramadan by fasting one or two days before it begins

I heard that it is not permissible for us to fast before Ramadaan. Is that true?.
Praise be to Allaah.
There are ahaadeeth narrated from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) which forbid fasting in the second half of Sha’baan, except in twocases:
1 – Those who have a habitual pattern of fasting, such as a man who usually fasts on Mondays and Thursdays – he may continue to do so even in the second half of Sha’baan.
2 – If he joins fasts in the second half of Ramadaan to the first half, i.e., if he started to fast in the first half and continues to fast until Ramadaan begins, this is permissible. See question no. 13726 .
These ahaadeeth include the following:
Al-Bukhaari (1914) and Muslim (1082) narrated that Abu Hurayrah (may Allaah be pleased with him) said: The Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Do not anticipate Ramadaan by fasting one or two days before it begins, but if a man habitually fasts, thenlet him fast.”
Abu Dawood (3237), al-Tirmidhi (738) and Ibn Maajah (1651) narrated from Abu Hurayrah (may Allaah be pleased with him) that the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “When Sha’baan is half over, do not fast.” Classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh al-Tirmidhi, 590.
Al-Nawawi said:
The words of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), “Do not anticipate Ramadaan by fasting one or two days before it begins, but if a man habitually fasts, then let him fast,” clearly indicate that it is not allowed to anticipate Ramadaan by fasting one or two days before it begins, for those who do not have a habitual pattern of fasting or who are not continuing to fast after starting to fast before (in the first half of Sha’baan). If one is not continuing to fast or does not have a regular patternof fasting, then it is haraam.
Al-Tirmidhi (686) and al-Nasaa’i (2188) narratedthat ‘Ammaar ibn Yaasir (may Allaah be pleased with him) said: “Whoever fasts on the day concerning which there is doubt has disobeyed Abu’l-Qaasim (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him).” See Question no. 13711 .
Al-Haafiz said in Fath al-Baari:
It was understood from this that it is haraam to fast the day of doubt, because the Sahaabah would not say such a thing based on personal opinion.
The day of doubt is the thirtieth of Sha’baan if thenew moon cannot be seen because of clouds etc. It is called the day of doubt because it could be the thirtieth of Sha’baan, or it could be the first day of Ramadaan. It is haraamto fast on this day, unless it coincides with a day on which a person habitually fasts.
Al-Nawawi said in al-Majmoo’ (6/400) concerning the ruling on fasting the day of doubt:
If a person observes a voluntary fast on this day,and he has a reason for doing so, such as having the habit of fasting every day, or of fasting alternate days, or fasting on particular days such as Mondays, and it happens to coincide with that day, then it is permissible for him to fast on this day; there is no difference of opinion among our companions regarding that. The evidence for thatis the hadeeth of Abu Hurayrah: “Do not anticipate Ramadaan by fasting one or two days before it begins, but if a man habitually fasts, thenlet him fast.” If he does not have a reason, then it is haraam for him to fast on this day.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen said in his commentary onthe hadeeth “Do not anticipate Ramadaan by fasting one or two days before it begins…”:
The scholars (may Allaah have mercy on them) differed concerning this prohibition and whether it meant that this is haraam or makrooh. The correct view is that it means it is haraam, especially on the day of doubt.
Sharh Riyaadh al-Saaliheen, 3/394.
Based on this, fasting in the second half of Sha’baan falls into two categories:
1- Fasting from the sixteenth until the twenty-eighth. This is makrooh, except for thosewho have a habitual pattern of fasting.
2- Fasting on the day ofdoubt, or one or two daysbefore Ramadaan begins. This is haraam, except for one who has a habitual pattern of fasting.
And Allaah knows best.
:-* key word:- Days on which it is forbidden to fast