Pilgrimage, & Dought & clear, - * Is it prescribed for the pilgrim to offer an udhiyah?

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Should my wife and I slaughter one ram or two during Hajj? Do we have to offer an udhiyah in our homeland or not?.
Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
If you are doing Tamattu’ or Qiraan, then each of you must offer a separate hadiy, and one ram is not sufficient for both of you, because offering a sacrifice is obligatory for the one who is doing Tamattu’ or Qiraan. The one who cannot afford that has to fast for ten days, three days during Hajj and seven when he returns to his homeland, as Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“and whosoever performs the ‘Umrah in the months of Hajj, before (performing) the Hajj, (i.e. Hajj-at-Tamattu‘ and Al-Qiraan), he must slaughter a Hady such as he can afford, but if he cannot afford it, he should observe Sawm (fasts) three days during the Hajj and seven days after his return (to his home), making ten days in all”
[al-Baqarah 2:196]
But if you are doing Ifrad, you do not have to offer a hadiy, but you may offer it voluntarily if you wish, offering one or more. The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) offered one hundred budnah as a hadiy during his Hajj.
Secondly:
As for the udhiyah, it is not prescribed for the pilgrim to offer it; rather what is prescribed for him is to offer the hadiy.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked: How can a person combine udhiyah and Hajj, and is that prescribed?
He replied: The pilgrim does not offer an udhiyah, rather he offers a hadiy. Hence the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) did not offer an udhiyah during the Farewell Hajj, rather he offered a hadiy. But if we assume that he is doing Hajj by himself and his family are in his homeland, then in that case he should leave his family enough money to buy an animal and offer it as an udhiyah, so he will be offering a hadiy and they will be offering an udhiyah, because the udhiyah is only prescribed in places other than Makkah, but in Makkah it should be a hadiy. End quote fromal-Liqa’ al-Shahri.
And Allaah knows best.

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Pilgrimage, & Dought & clear, - * Is the udhiyah obligatory for the pilgrim doing Hajj?

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Is the udhiyah obligatory for the pilgrim doing Hajj?.
Praise be to Allaah.
The scholars differed concerning the ruling on the udhiyah. The majority of scholars are of the view that it is Sunnah mu’akkadah (a confirmed Sunnah), and others are of the view that it is obligatory for the one who can afford it. This has been discussed in the answer to question no. 36432.
This difference of opinion has to do with people other than the one who is performing Hajj. As for the pilgrim, the scholars differed as to the ruling on offering an udhiyah in his case. Some say that it is prescribed – whether they regard it as mustahabb or obligatory, and others said that it is not prescribed.
Those who say that the udhiyah is not prescribed for the pilgrim differed as to the reason for that, and there are two opinions:
(i) because there is no Eid prayer for the pilgrim, and his sacrifice is the hadiy of tamattu’ or Qiraan
(ii) because the pilgrim is a traveller, and the udhiyah is prescribed for those who are not travelling. This is the view of Abu Haneefah, according to whom if the pilgrim is one of the people of Makkah, then he is not a traveller, so it is obligatory for him to offer the udhiyah.
There follow details of their views and some of their comments.
1.
The Hanafis. It says inal-Mabsoot(6/171):
It is obligatory for the one who can afford it and for non-travellers in our opinion. End quote.
Inal-Jawharah al-Nayyarah(5/285, 286) it says:
It is not obligatory for the pilgrim who is a traveller. As for the people of Makkah, it is obligatory for them even if they do Hajj. End quote.
2.
The Maalikis. They said that the pilgrim does not have to offer an udhiyah because he is a pilgrim not because he is a traveller.
Inal-Mudawwanah(4/101) it says:
Maalik said to me: The pilgrim does not have to offer an udhiyah even if he is one of the inhabitants of Mina once he is performing Hajj. I said: Do all people have to offer the udhiyah according to Maalik’s view except the pilgrim? He said: Yes. End quote.
3.
The Shaafa’is said it is mustahabb to offer the udhiyah for the pilgrim and for others.
Imam al-Shaafa’i (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
The Makkan pilgrim, the one who is in transit from one country to another, the traveller, the non-traveller, and the male and female who can afford an udhiyah, are all the same and there is no difference between them. If it is obligatory for each one of them then it is obligatory for all of them and if it is waived for one of them then it is waived for all of them. If it is obligatory for some of them and not others, then the pilgrim is the one for whom it is most likely to be obligatory, because it is a sacrifice and he has to offer a sacrifice, whereas others do not have to offer a sacrifice. But it is not permissible to make something obligatory for the people without proof or to differentiate between them without the same. End quote.
Al-Umm(2/348)
4.
Ibn Hazm (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
The udhiyah for the pilgrim is mustahabb as it is for non-pilgrims.
Some people said: The pilgrim does not offer an udhiyah.
The Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) encouraged offering the udhiyah, so it is not permissible to deny the pilgrim the virtue and possibility of drawing closer to Allaah without a text to that effect. End quote.
Al-Muhalla(5/314, 315)
5.
According to the Hanbalis, it is permissible for the pilgrim to offer an udhiyah.
Ibn Qudaamah (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
If he does not have a hadiy (sacrificial animal) with him, and he has to offer a hadiy because it is obligatory for him, then he should buy it. If it is not obligatory for him, but he wants to offer an udhiyah, then he may buy an animal that may be offered as such.
Al-Mughni(7/180)
In the hadeeth from ‘Aa’ishah (may Allaah be pleased with her) it says that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) offered an udhiyah on behalf of his wives in Mina during the Farewell Pilgrimage. Narrated by al-Bukhaari (5239) and Muslim (1211).
Some of the scholars – such as Ibn al-Qayyim – rejected this interpretation of the hadeeth and said that what was meant by udhiyah here was the hadiy.
See:Zaad al-Ma’aad(2/262-267)
Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah and his student Ibn al-Qayyim favoured the view that the pilgrim should not offer an udhiyah. Seeal-Iqnaa’(1/409) andal-Insaaf(4/110). This view was also regarded as more correct by Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him). He (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked: How can a person combine udhiyah and Hajj, and is that prescribed?
He replied: The pilgrim does not offer an udhiyah, rather he offers a hadiy. Hence the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) did not offer an udhiyah during the Farewell Hajj, rather he offered a hadiy. But if we assume that he is doing Hajj by himself and his family are in his homeland, then in that case he should leave his family enough money to buy an animal and offer it as an udhiyah, so he will be offering a hadiy and they will be offering an udhiyah, because the udhiyah is only prescribed in places other than Makkah, but in Makkah it should be a hadiy. End quote fromal-Liqa’ al-Shahri.
And Allaah knows best.

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Kind Treatment of Spouses, - Dought & clear, - * She took some of her husband’s money without his knowledge to spend on her son’s marriage

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M NajimudeeN - INDIA
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Dear shaykh, I arranged my son’s marriage last year, and the expenses were huge. I spent a great deal and my husband swore that he would not pay any more costs, but I had not finished buying everything that was needed for the marriage. My husband’s money was with me and I do not have any money of my own. So I had no choice but to take some money from my husband’s money that was with me, without his knowledge, and I could not tell him. But by Allah, all I took I spent on the costs of the marriage. Now I do not know what to do? Am I a sinner?
Praise be to Allah.
Firstly:
The father is obliged to help his son remain chaste by means of marriage, especially if he asks him to do that and he has the need and desire for it, so as to protect him from temptation and to maintain his chastity.
See the answers to questions no. 83191and 87983
Secondly:
One should be moderate with regard to marriage expenses and not go beyond the bounds of moderation; the spending should not reach the level of extravagance and wastefulness as is common among people nowadays.
The scholars of the Standing Committee said:
Your spending half a million riyals on your daughter’s marriage comes under the heading of extravagance that is forbidden and there is the fear that you may incur punishment because of that unless you repent to Allah, may He be exalted, and give up this extravagance, because wealth belongs to Allah, may He be exalted, and people are entrusted with it. Islam has set out guidelines on how to handle this wealth and has forbidden extravagance and wastefulness. Allah, may He be exalted, says (interpretation of the meaning):“And those, who, when they spend, are neither extravagant nor miserly, but hold a medium (way) between those (extremes)” [al-Furqaan 25:67].
What is meant is: do not be extravagant by overstepping the limits of generosity and spending on sinful things, and do not be miserly in spending; Rather be in between that, i.e., between extravagance and miserliness; adopt a middle path.
End quote fromFataawa al-Lajnah ad-Daa’imah, 16/220-221
Thirdly:
It is not permissible for a woman to spend her husband’s wealth except with his permission, unless he is stingy towards her and her children and does not fulfil his duty towards Allah by spending on their maintenance as obliged. In that case it is permissible for her to take from his wealth whatever is sufficient for her and her children, on a reasonable basis.
See the answer to question no. 150250
If the husband has not been miserly towards his son with regard to his marriage and has spent on him in a reasonable manner, without being stingy but in accordance with his financial situation, it is not permissible for you to take anything from his wealth, even if it is to spend on your son’s marriage.
You mentioned that you had spent a great deal on this marriage. If what had been spent was sufficient for what is customary for someone like your son, then he does not have the right to anything more than that and what you took was a transgression against your husband’s wealth.
If it was in line with what is usually spent on marriage in your country, for people of similar standing to you, then you have the right to make up the costs for your son’s marriage in a way that will not adversely affect his father’s wealth or be unfair to him.
What you must do is pay attention to the rights of Allah to this wealth and to the rights of your husband who is the owner of this wealth, as well as the sanctity of the oath that he swore and what is in the best interests of your other children.
You also have to repent and ask for forgiveness, and you have to tell your husband what you did and ask him to forgive you and let you off.
But if you think it most likely that your relationship will be adversely affected or that your husband will get angry and there will be problems between you, then you do not have to tell him. With regard to the extra money that you spent, if you have money of your own from a salary, inheritance or the like, then you should pay back from your wealth what you took from your husband’s wealth without his permission.
If you do not have any wealth, then repent to Allah and ask for His forgiveness for that, and strive to treat your husband kindly as much as you can and pay attention to his rights, in the hope that Allah will forgive you and set things straight between you.
And Allah knows best.
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Kind Treatment of Spouses, - Dought & clear, - * Can she masturbate if her husband cannot satisfy her desire?

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Thank u for ur answer, but unfortunately it did not answer my question. The thing is, that we have tried every possible way there is to satisfy me, we have talked alot about it, we read a whole lot about it, but still havent been successful. Now my husband has said that he wants me to masturbate after we have had intercourse, so that i also get satisfied, because he is not able to do so in any which way.
But my question to u is: Am I allowed to masturbate after we have had intercourse if my husband cannot satisfy me with any method at all? I have my husbands permission. The only thing I need to know, is that if it is allowed in Islam to do so if the husband is not able to satisfy his wife at all?
I hope you will be able to help me, as this has started to effect our marriage life.
Hello
I have been married for 3 years now and love my husband very much. our problem is that my husband cannot satisfy me sexually at all, not with hand or anything else. We have tried all methods but it just doesnt work. This has become a big issue in our marriage, and makes me wants to masturbate as i dont get satisfied at all. My question to you is: is it allowed for me to masturbate in order to satisfy myself to stay happy in my marriage if nothing else is working ?
Praise be to Allah.
Firstly:
The basic principle is that masturbation is haraam. Please see the answer to question no. 329
That is only permitted if a person fears that he may end up committing zina; no doubt the prohibition on zina is more emphatic, and it is more abhorrent and reprehensible. Hence it is permissible to commit the lesser of two evils so as to ward off the greater.
Ar-Ruhaybaani (may Allah have mercy on him) said: If a person, man or woman, masturbates with no need to do so, that action is haraam and he should be given a disciplinary punishment for it, because it is a sin. But if he does it because he fears falling into zina or homosexuality, or because he fears physical harm, then there is no punishment.
End quote fromMataalib Ooli an-Nuha Sharh Ghaayat al-Muntaha, 6/226
Al-Mirdaawi (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
We learn two things from this:
1. That masturbation is not permissible except in cases of necessity
2. The ruling for women on that matter is the same as the ruling for men, if a woman fears falling into zina.
This is the correct view, as stated inal-Furoo‘.
End quote fromal-Insaaf, 10/252
Secondly:
What the husband must do is give his wife her rights to kind treatment. One of the most important matters to which he must pay attention in that regard is keeping her chaste so that she will not look at other men, and giving her her rights in matters of intimacy as much as possible, even if that means using aphrodisiacs and paying attention to nutrition.
If the husband reaches climax quickly, before his wife is satisfied, then he has to try hard to stimulate her first, even if that is with his hand or body, and not start to have intercourse until she is ready for that, and then she can reach climax through intercourse.
If the question is about masturbation with the hand, what difference is there between the husband’s hand or her own hand? Why can’t he do that for her, and why should she do that herself?
What we think is that the husband should do that, and it is better if it is before he has intercourse with her, then if she needs anything else, he can stimulate her again after having intercourse, so that her needs will be met.
There is nothing wrong with him consulting a specialist doctor, if he is suffering from any kind of problem.
And Allah knows best.

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