There is an important matter that is giving me sleepless nights, which
is: what is the meaning of the differences of the imam concerning a
certain issue? If I say to someone that Shaykh So and so says that
something is haraam, he says to me that is according to his madhhab or
the madhhab of his country, and we follow a different madhhab that
says it is halaal. This led me to the issue of hijab. For example, my
country follows the Maaliki madhhab, the imams of which say that "that
which is apparent" [al-Noor 24:33] refers to the face and hands. In
addition to that, the face-veil is virtually banned in my country,
i.e., you could never wear it in your daily life, such as wearing it
at work or in school. There are laws that ban it and the gloves.
Although personally I am fully convinced about the face-veil, I cannot
wear it. What is your ruling on that? Because every time I listen to
tapes about hijab from Shaykhs from another madhhab, I feel that my
hijab is not Islamically acceptable, and I understand from their words
that I am currently unveiled and making a wanton display of myself
(tabarruj) and I am a cause of fitnah among this ummah. What should we
do, as we are confused?.
Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
At the time of the Revelation, the Muslims learned the rulings of
Islam from the Prophet(peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him)
through the verses of the Holy Qur'aan and the ahaadeeth of his
Sunnah. Hence there were no differences of opinion among them except
with regard to some minor issues. If that happened, the Prophet(peace
and blessings of Allaah be upon him) would explain to them what was
correct.
When the Prophet(peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) died and
the Sahaabah spread out to various regions to teach the people Islam,
there appeared some differences with regard to some matters of fiqh
which arose at different times and in different places. These
differences were due to a number of reasons, which we will sum up here
from the words of the scholars:
1-The evidence had not reached the one who held a different opinion,
and he made a mistake in forming his opinion.
2-The hadeeth had reached the scholar, but he did not regard the
transmitter as trustworthy, and he thought that it went against
something that was stronger, so he followed that which he thought was
stronger than it.
3-The hadeeth had reached him but he forgot it.
4-The hadeeth had reached him but he understood it in a way other than
the intended meaning.
5-The hadeeth reached him but it was abrogated, and he did not know
the abrogating text.
6-He thought that it contradicted something that was stronger than it,
whether that was a text or scholarly consensus (ijmaa')
7-The scholar used a weak hadeeth as the basis for his ruling, or he
derived the ruling by means of weak arguments.
For a detailed discussion of these reasons and others, seeRaf'
al-Malaam 'an al-A'immati'l-A'laamby Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah,
andal-Khilaaf bayna al-'Ulama': Asbaabuhu wa Mawqifuna minhuby Shaykh
al-'Uthaymeen.
We think that what we have mentioned about the reasons for differences
among the scholars i.e., with regard to matters of fiqh, will be clear
to you, in sha Allaah.
Secondly:
What should the Muslim's attitude be towards differences that arise
between the scholars? In other words, which scholarly opinion should
the Muslim follow in matters where they differed? The answer depends:
1 – If the Muslim is one who has studied shar'i knowledge and learned
its basic principles and minor issues, and he can distinguish right
from wrong with regard to scholarly views, then he has to follow that
which he thinks is correct and ignore that which he thinks is wrong.
2 – If he is one of the rank and file, or has not studied shar'i
knowledge, and thus cannot distinguish between right and wrong with
regard to scholarly views, then he must follow the fatwa of a scholar
whose knowledge he trusts and who he believes to be trustworthy and
religiously committed, whether he is from his own country or another
country, and differences between scholars will not matter after that.
He does not have to change what he is doing because he hears another
scholar issuing a fatwa that differs from the one he is following,
unless he realizes that what he learned later on is the correct view,
on the basis of his confidence in the religious commitment and
knowledge of the second Shaykh.
Shaykh Muhammad ibn Saalih al-'Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
The one who has knowledge of evidence is required to follow the
evidence, even if it goes against some of the imams, if it does not go
against the consensus of the ummah.
The one who does not have any knowledge should ask the scholars,
because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):"So ask of those
who know the Scripture, if you know not" [al-Nahl 16:43]. He should
ask one who he thinks has more knowledge and is more religiously
committed, but that does not mean that doing so obligatory, because
the one who is better may make a mistake with regard to a particular
issue, and the one who is regarded as less knowledgeable may be right
with regard to it. But priority should be given to following the one
who is more knowledgeable and more religiously committed.
See also the answers to questions no. 8294and 10645.
Thirdly:
If you ask about our view on the issue of covering the face, the most
correct scholarly view in our opinion is that it is obligatory to
cover the face in front of non-mahram men. There is a great deal of
evidence and scholarly views concerning that, as among the Maalikis.
Many of them said that it is not permissible for a woman to uncover
her face in front of non-mahram men, not because it is 'awrah but
because uncovering it runs the risk of fitnah. But some of them think
that it is 'awrah. Hence women, in their view, are forbidden to go out
in front of non-mahram men with their faces uncovered.
Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
"And when you ask (his wives) for anything you want, ask them from
behind a screen"
[al-Ahzaab 33:53]
al-Qaadi Abu Bakr ibn al-'Arabi al-Maaliki (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
The entire woman is 'awrah, her body and her voice, so it is not
permissible to uncover that except in cases of necessity, such as when
testimony is given against her, or medical treatment, or asking her
about her health issues. End quote.
Ahkaam al-Qur'aan by Ibn al-'Arabi(3/1578, 1579).
Al-Qurtubi (may Allaah have mercy on him), who is also Maaliki, said:
This verse indicates that Allaah has given permission to ask of them
from behind a screen if there is some need, or when they ask a
question about something. That includes all women. Because it is a
basic shar'i principle that the entire woman is 'awrah, her body and
her voice – as stated above –it is not permissible to uncover that
except in cases of necessity such as when testimony is given against
her, or medical treatment, or asking her about her health issues. End
quote.
Inal-Jaami' li Ahkaam al-Qur'aan(14/227) it says:
For more information on the views of Maaliki fuqaha' concerning the
obligation for women to cover their faces, see:al-Ma'yaar
al-Mu'arrabby al-Wanshireesi (10/165 and 11/226 and 229),Mawaahib
al-Jaleelby al-Hattaab (3/141),al-Dhakheerahby al-Quraafi (3/307)
andHaashiyat al-Dasooqi 'ala al-Sharh al-Kabeer(2/55).
We have discussed this issue and its evidence in more than one answer
on this site. Please see the answers to questions no. 11774, 12525,
13998, 21134and 21536.
Fourthly:
With regard to what you mention about the laws in your country
forbidding women to cover their faces, that is something that makes us
feel very sad, to hear that covering and chastity are being opposed
and wanton display and unveiling are being encouraged everywhere,
especially when that happens in a country that is supposed to be
Muslim.
If the laws forbid women to cover, and you fear persecution because of
covering your faces, then there is no sin on you if you do not do it
in that case, so long as that is based on necessity. So a woman should
not go out of her house with her face uncovered except in cases of
necessity. If she can break the law and put up with a little bit of
hassle, let her do so for there is no obedience to any created being
if it involves disobedience towards the Creator.And Allaah knows best.
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Islam is a religion of Mercy, Peace and Blessing. Its teachings emphasize kind hear tedness, help, sympathy, forgiveness, sacrifice, love and care.Qur’an, the Shari’ah and the life of our beloved Prophet (SAW) mirrors this attribute, and it should be reflected in the conduct of a Momin.Islam appreciates those who are kind to their fellow being,and dislikes them who are hard hearted, curt, and hypocrite.Recall that historical moment, when Prophet (SAW) entered Makkah as a conqueror. There was before him a multitude of surrendered enemies, former oppressors and persecutors, who had evicted the Muslims from their homes, deprived them of their belongings, humiliated and intimidated Prophet (SAW) hatched schemes for his murder and tortured and killed his companions. But Prophet (SAW) displayed his usual magnanimity, generosity, and kind heartedness by forgiving all of them and declaring general amnesty...Subhanallah. May Allah help us tailor our life according to the teachings of Islam. (Aameen)./-
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Sunday, October 27, 2013
Be Patient: Key to happiness and success
A man came out of his home to admire his new truck. To his
puzzlement, his three-year-old son was happily picked stone and
scratched lines on the side of the truck. In his anger, the man ran to
his son, knocked him away. And took the little boy's hands and hit it
many times as punishment, not realizing he was using a wrench. When
the father calmed down, he rushed his son to the hospital.
Although the doctor tried desperately to save the crushed bones, he
finally had to amputate the fingers from both the little boy's hands.
When the boy woke up from the surgery and saw his bandaged stubs, he
innocently said, "Daddy, I'm sorry about your truck." Then he asked,
"But when are my fingers going to grow back?" The father was so hurt.
He went back to truck and kicked it a lot of times. Sitting back he
looked at the scratches, little boy wrote "I LOVE YOU DAD." Later then
committed suicide.
Think about this story the next time someone steps on your feet or you
wish to take revenge. Think first before you lose your patience with
someone you love. Trucks can be repaired. Broken bones and hurt
feelings often can't. Too often we fail to recognize the difference
between the person and the performance. We forget that forgiveness is
greater than revenge.
People make mistakes. We are allowed to make mistakes, because we
human beings are not perfect. But the actions we take while in a rage
will haunt us forever.
It takes 72 muscles to frown - only 14 to smile! So keep smiling,
After all, we only live once.
In the word SMILE:
*.S stands for Sets you free
*.M stands for Makes you special
*.I stands for Increases your face value
*.L stands for Lifts up your spirits
*.E stands for Erases all your tensions
A Smile makes us look younger, while Prayers make us feel stronger.
Think about how special a smile is. It costs nothing, but has the
power to enrich all, who receive it.
A smile is the light in your window that tells others that there is a
caring, sharing person inside.
Even a smile or a kind word is considered charity.
Good Life starts only when you stop wanting a better One. So, Live
like a Candle, which burns itself but give lights to others.
puzzlement, his three-year-old son was happily picked stone and
scratched lines on the side of the truck. In his anger, the man ran to
his son, knocked him away. And took the little boy's hands and hit it
many times as punishment, not realizing he was using a wrench. When
the father calmed down, he rushed his son to the hospital.
Although the doctor tried desperately to save the crushed bones, he
finally had to amputate the fingers from both the little boy's hands.
When the boy woke up from the surgery and saw his bandaged stubs, he
innocently said, "Daddy, I'm sorry about your truck." Then he asked,
"But when are my fingers going to grow back?" The father was so hurt.
He went back to truck and kicked it a lot of times. Sitting back he
looked at the scratches, little boy wrote "I LOVE YOU DAD." Later then
committed suicide.
Think about this story the next time someone steps on your feet or you
wish to take revenge. Think first before you lose your patience with
someone you love. Trucks can be repaired. Broken bones and hurt
feelings often can't. Too often we fail to recognize the difference
between the person and the performance. We forget that forgiveness is
greater than revenge.
People make mistakes. We are allowed to make mistakes, because we
human beings are not perfect. But the actions we take while in a rage
will haunt us forever.
It takes 72 muscles to frown - only 14 to smile! So keep smiling,
After all, we only live once.
In the word SMILE:
*.S stands for Sets you free
*.M stands for Makes you special
*.I stands for Increases your face value
*.L stands for Lifts up your spirits
*.E stands for Erases all your tensions
A Smile makes us look younger, while Prayers make us feel stronger.
Think about how special a smile is. It costs nothing, but has the
power to enrich all, who receive it.
A smile is the light in your window that tells others that there is a
caring, sharing person inside.
Even a smile or a kind word is considered charity.
Good Life starts only when you stop wanting a better One. So, Live
like a Candle, which burns itself but give lights to others.
Saturday, October 26, 2013
Fathwa, - A husband saying to his wife 'You c..
Question
1(If a man says to his wife: "If you do not want to be with me, then
you can divorce me, I do not intend to divorce you" And then the woman
says, "you can be sure that I take from you a divorce" But they both
thought that it was all the same to what she says it does not matter
because the woman can not take a divorce. Neither of them did not know
that a man can give a woman the right to divorce . So, this woman did
not mean that she now divorce from her husband, because she did not
ask for a khul . Her words were threats that she intends to divorce in
the future.What is ruling? 2( And another question ..If a man says to
his wife, I divorce you . But he means in the future . and both
understand that he means it in the future. What is ruling?
Answer
All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that
there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammadis His
slave and Messenger.
These words that were exchanged between that husband and his wife do
not lead to divorce as long as they did not intend divorce by saying
them.Qalyoobisaid in his Haashiyah: "Among the cases of giving the
wife authority to divorce herself is the clear word of divorce if it
is attributed to other than its proper person; like if he )a husband(
said to his wife: 'divorce me' or 'I am divorced from you', and she
said 'I divorce you', then if he had intended to give her authority to
divorce herself and she intended divorce, divorce is effective,
otherwise it is not."
Besides, if a man says to his wife 'I divorce you' intending divorce
in the future, then this does not lead to divorce as it is like a
promise )of divorce(;Shaykh Ibn 'Uhtaymeensaid in his book Ash-Sharh
Al-Mumti' a'la Zaad Al-Mustaqni': "His )Al-Hijjaawi's( statement
)about uttering divorce( 'in the present tense' like saying 'you are
being divorced' does not lead to divorce as it is a report which
indicates that she will be divorced )in the future(, while divorce is
in the hands of the husband. But if the husband intended the present
)i.e. initiating divorce on the spot(, then she is divorced as the
present tense )in the Arabic language( could refer to both the present
and the future."
For more benefit on the fact that uttering divorce in the present
tense is a promise of divorce and it is not effective unless the
husband intends divorce on the spot,Allah Knows best.
1(If a man says to his wife: "If you do not want to be with me, then
you can divorce me, I do not intend to divorce you" And then the woman
says, "you can be sure that I take from you a divorce" But they both
thought that it was all the same to what she says it does not matter
because the woman can not take a divorce. Neither of them did not know
that a man can give a woman the right to divorce . So, this woman did
not mean that she now divorce from her husband, because she did not
ask for a khul . Her words were threats that she intends to divorce in
the future.What is ruling? 2( And another question ..If a man says to
his wife, I divorce you . But he means in the future . and both
understand that he means it in the future. What is ruling?
Answer
All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that
there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammadis His
slave and Messenger.
These words that were exchanged between that husband and his wife do
not lead to divorce as long as they did not intend divorce by saying
them.Qalyoobisaid in his Haashiyah: "Among the cases of giving the
wife authority to divorce herself is the clear word of divorce if it
is attributed to other than its proper person; like if he )a husband(
said to his wife: 'divorce me' or 'I am divorced from you', and she
said 'I divorce you', then if he had intended to give her authority to
divorce herself and she intended divorce, divorce is effective,
otherwise it is not."
Besides, if a man says to his wife 'I divorce you' intending divorce
in the future, then this does not lead to divorce as it is like a
promise )of divorce(;Shaykh Ibn 'Uhtaymeensaid in his book Ash-Sharh
Al-Mumti' a'la Zaad Al-Mustaqni': "His )Al-Hijjaawi's( statement
)about uttering divorce( 'in the present tense' like saying 'you are
being divorced' does not lead to divorce as it is a report which
indicates that she will be divorced )in the future(, while divorce is
in the hands of the husband. But if the husband intended the present
)i.e. initiating divorce on the spot(, then she is divorced as the
present tense )in the Arabic language( could refer to both the present
and the future."
For more benefit on the fact that uttering divorce in the present
tense is a promise of divorce and it is not effective unless the
husband intends divorce on the spot,Allah Knows best.
Fathwa, - Divorce after 'Iddah isof no signi..
Question
Salaamualaikum; Am a Hanafi sunni Muslim, I had given TALAQ telephonic
to my wife on 5th February 2013 )She was nor on menstrual periods
neither pregnant( , later in due time of three menstrual period of
her, I did not said or done any RUJU )we were staying in two different
cities in due time(, after completion of 3 months from the date of
TALAQ pronounced, I asked her to marry me and settle the issues, but
she didn't agreed and our fight continued. Later On the 8th July 2013
I wrote her email writing entire happening among us and the reason for
first TALAQ; and in last line of email I wrote" I am giving you "TALAQ
TALAQ TALAQ" ". Now the query is what is the status of my TALAQ
according to sharia in the light of Quran and Hadeeth?? Weather it is
considers as only one TALAQ OR its Consider as a 3 TALAQ?? The 2
Muftis had confused me saying one as Triple Talaq had hapend and other
one as it's a only one talaq. Kindly clarify in detail to forward the
same message to our Muftees. Jazakallah Khair.
Answer
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify
that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that
Muhammadis His slave and Messenger.
If the matter is as you mentioned in the question that the waiting
period from the first divorce had elapsed by the expiry of three
menses, then this woman is no longer your wife, and she is a
non-Mahram to you. So the three divorces which you initiated are of no
significance and they are not taken into account because you initiated
divorce to a woman who was not your wife.Allah Knows best.
Salaamualaikum; Am a Hanafi sunni Muslim, I had given TALAQ telephonic
to my wife on 5th February 2013 )She was nor on menstrual periods
neither pregnant( , later in due time of three menstrual period of
her, I did not said or done any RUJU )we were staying in two different
cities in due time(, after completion of 3 months from the date of
TALAQ pronounced, I asked her to marry me and settle the issues, but
she didn't agreed and our fight continued. Later On the 8th July 2013
I wrote her email writing entire happening among us and the reason for
first TALAQ; and in last line of email I wrote" I am giving you "TALAQ
TALAQ TALAQ" ". Now the query is what is the status of my TALAQ
according to sharia in the light of Quran and Hadeeth?? Weather it is
considers as only one TALAQ OR its Consider as a 3 TALAQ?? The 2
Muftis had confused me saying one as Triple Talaq had hapend and other
one as it's a only one talaq. Kindly clarify in detail to forward the
same message to our Muftees. Jazakallah Khair.
Answer
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify
that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that
Muhammadis His slave and Messenger.
If the matter is as you mentioned in the question that the waiting
period from the first divorce had elapsed by the expiry of three
menses, then this woman is no longer your wife, and she is a
non-Mahram to you. So the three divorces which you initiated are of no
significance and they are not taken into account because you initiated
divorce to a woman who was not your wife.Allah Knows best.
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