Children are a source of delight and an adornment for the world
granted by Allaah to their parents. They give vigor to the hearts, joy
to the souls and pleasure to the eyes. They are thefruit from whom
good is to be hoped for when they frequently supplicate. "My Lord,
have mercy upon them as they brought me up [when I was] small. "
They are the ones in every nation upon whom hope for the future lies,
and they are the youth of tomorrow upon whose shouldersthe call to
Islam is carried. IndeedIslam has elevated the status of children and
has laid down manners for their treatment through different stages,
which start with the manners of welcoming the new born child.
Our Prophet was a living example, educating, cultivating the Muslims
upon the practices ofIslam, teaching them how to worship their Lord in
the best of ways. But a number of Muslims have strayed from his pure
teachings and have substituted that which is gold for that which is
worthless.
Encouragement to have children:
Allaah, Almighty, Says (what means): "…So now, have relationswith them
and seek that which Allaah has decreed for you…" [Quran 2: 187]
The Prophet said: "Marry the loving and fertile because through you, I
will compete with the nations for superiority in numbers." [Abu
Daawood, Ahmadand Ibn Hibbaan]
It is important that the parents bring up their children upon
righteousness, so that the parents will benefit from them during their
lives and after their death.
What has preceded applies equally to both boys and girls, and indeed
Islam has encouragedthe bringing up of girls, and Allaah c
ondemns those that are distressed at the birth of a girl. The
Messenger said: "Whoever takes care of two girls until they reach
adulthood - he and I will come together on the Day of Resurrection
(like this) - and he interlaced his two fingers." [Muslim]
Giving the good news of the birth:
The near of kin who are anxiouslywaiting should be informed so that
they can stop worrying and congratulate the parents and s
upplicate for the baby. Allaah mentions this good news being conveyed
to a number of His Prophets, such as Zakariyyaa' of his son Yahyaa,
may Allaah exalt their mention. Allaah Says (what means): " So the
angels called him while he was standing in prayer in the chamber,
'Indeed, Allaah gives you good tidings of John, confirming a word from
Allaah and [who will be] honorable, abstaining [from women], and a
prophet from among the righteous'." [Quran 3: 39]
Calling the Athaan in the ear of the newborn:
The first practice to do is to call the Athaan in the ear of the
baby,so that the first words that the baby hears is the name of
Allaah, and the Kalimah (There is no god but Allaah, Muhammad is the
Messenger of Allaah).
It is to be called immediately after the birth, or very soon
afterwards as he did with his grandson Al-Hasan, as is related by Abu
Raafi' who said: "I saw theProphet call the Athaan in theear of
Al-Hasan Ibn 'Ali when his mother Faatimah gave birth to him." [Ahmad,
At-Tirmithi and Abu Daawood]
It should be given with its usual wording in a voice which is audible
to the baby, not so loudlythat it risks harm to the baby or alarms it.
The Sunnah has not specified as to which ear it should be given,
however the Messenger of Allaah used to love to do good actions
starting from the right, so it would be more appropriate to give the
Athaan in the right ear.
The Tahneek:
This means to softening or chewing a date and then rubbingthe palate
of the new-born with it just after the birth or soon after. This is
done by putting a piece of the softened date on the finger and rubbing
it from left to right in the mouth of the baby.
Ibn Hajr said: "if one is not able to find a dry date, then a fresh
date should be used, and if that is not available then anything
sweet."
It is not essential to chew the date rather it may be softened in any way.
It is done by the father or the mother or anyone from the people of
knowledge whose supplication is hoped would be accepted. So he should
perform Tahneek and supplicate for the child as was the practice of
the Companions .
Imaam An-Nawawi said: "Scholars are agreed upon the recommendation of
performing Tahneek upon the baby after its birth ." [Sharh Saheeh
Muslim]
Aa'ishah reported: " New-born children used to be brought to the
Messenger of Allaah and he would supplicate for blessings for them,
and rub a chewed date upon their palate ." [Muslim]
Naming the child:
The baby may be named on the day of its birth, third day, or later on
the seventh day or past the seventh day, as this is what is clear
after study of all the evidences from the Sunnah.
It is the father or the mother who choose the name for the baby. If
they differ amongst themselves then it is the father who has the
choice, he may name it himself or give his wife the right to choose.
The fact that this is the right of the father is shown by the
principle that the child is ascribed and attributed tothe father, as
Allaah Says (what means): "Call them by [the namesof] their fathers;
it is more just in the sight of Allaah…" [Quran 33: 5]
It is also allowed for the parents to allow others to name the child,
since our Prophet used to name some of the children of his Companions
.
The name should carry a good and praiseworthy meaning as theMessenger
said: "On the Day of Resurrection, you will be calledby your names and
your fathers' names, so make your names good." [Abu Daawood]
It is recommended to call oneselfAbdullaah (a servant of Allaah) or
the servant of any of the names of Allaah. Then it is recommended to
name a child after a Prophet, due to the Hadeeth: "Call yourselves by
the names of the Prophets." [Abu Daawood]
And the hadeeth: "A son was born to me this night and I calledhim
after my forefather Ibraheem ." [Muslim]
Then it is recommended to name the child after any pious person in the
hope that it will become like him/her. Then it is recommended to name
by any name which has good meaning.
It is forbidden to name a child with a name that denote servitude to
other than Allaah, for example Abd An-Nabi, Abd Ar-Rasool etc., just
as it is forbidden to name them with names that are particular to the
non-Muslims like George, Michael,Susan, etc.
The names of tyrants and evil personalities should be avoided such as
Pharaoh, Qaroon, Abu Lahab etc. Likewise it is disliked to name with
the names of the chapters of the Quran like 'Taa Haa' or 'Yaa Seen' as
is reported from Imaam Maalik and others. There is no authentic
Hadeeth which ascribes the above two as being names of the Prophet .
The 'Aqeeqah:
After the seventh day of the arrival of the new-born, as a formof
welcome for it and to give thanks to the One who gave the blessings,
it is prescribed to slaughter a sheep. The Messenger said: "Every
child is in pledge for it's 'Aqeeqah which is sacrificed for it on its
seventh day, and it is named on it, and its head is shaved." [Abu
Daawood and At-Tirmidhi]
If the new-born is a boy then twosheep are to be sacrificed, and if it
is a girl then one sheep. This is the position of the majority of the
scholars and Companions . The Prophet said: "For the boy two equal
sheep, and for the girl, a single sheep." [Ahmad and At-Tirmithi]
The sacrifice is done by the fatheror a close relative, for our
Prophet performed the 'Aqeeqah for his two grandsons. It is also
obligatory to mention the name of Allaah over it while sacrificing,
and if a close relative is performing the 'Aqeeqah then he adds, 'this
'Aqeeqah is the 'Aqeeqah of so and so' mentioning the name of the
person on whose behalf he is performing the 'Aqeeqah, as is reported
in a Hadeeth related by Al-Bayhaqi.
Shaving the baby's head:
On the seventh day after the birth, the head of the baby should be
shaved. So when Al-Hasan was born, the Prophet told his daughter,
Faatima : "Shave his head and give the weight of his hair in silver to
the poor." [Ahmad, At-Tabaraani and Al-Bayhaqi]
It is not permissible to shave a part of the head and leave a part, as
this was prohibited by the Messenger as reported by Al-Bukhaari.
The shaving should be done after the sacrifice, and our pious
predecessors liked to rub some perfume over the baby's head after the
shaving.
Then it is prescribed to give the value of the baby's weight of hairin
silver in charity, and it is recommended to give this charityon the
seventh day also, but it is not necessary to do so, and may be
delayed.
Circumcision:
It is prescribed that the boy be circumcised, it is recommended that
the circumcision take place on the seventh day, but it is obligatory
to circumcise before
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Islam is a religion of Mercy, Peace and Blessing. Its teachings emphasize kind hear tedness, help, sympathy, forgiveness, sacrifice, love and care.Qur’an, the Shari’ah and the life of our beloved Prophet (SAW) mirrors this attribute, and it should be reflected in the conduct of a Momin.Islam appreciates those who are kind to their fellow being,and dislikes them who are hard hearted, curt, and hypocrite.Recall that historical moment, when Prophet (SAW) entered Makkah as a conqueror. There was before him a multitude of surrendered enemies, former oppressors and persecutors, who had evicted the Muslims from their homes, deprived them of their belongings, humiliated and intimidated Prophet (SAW) hatched schemes for his murder and tortured and killed his companions. But Prophet (SAW) displayed his usual magnanimity, generosity, and kind heartedness by forgiving all of them and declaring general amnesty...Subhanallah. May Allah help us tailor our life according to the teachings of Islam. (Aameen)./-
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Tuesday, January 29, 2013
The manners of welcoming the new-bornchild in Islam
Is a Christian woman required to observe ‘iddah if her Muslim husband divorces her?.
A man married to a foreign Christian womanwho has an inclination
towards Islam. But Allah has willed that we should separate. My
question is: is the kitaabi(Jewish or Christian) woman required to
observe 'iddah and do I have to impose it on her if she refuses to
observe 'iddah? There is a secondproblem, which is that I am living in
her house and I do not have any other accommodation togo to. What is
the Islamicruling concerning that?.
Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
The kitaabi (Jewish or Christian) wife should observe 'iddah
followingdivorce or death of the husband, just like the Muslim woman.
It says in al-Mawsoo'ah al-Fiqhiyyah (29/336): The Hanafis, Maalikis,
Shaafa'is and Hanbalis, as well as ath-Thawri and Abu 'Ubayd, are of
the view that the kitaabior dhimmi woman is required to observe 'iddah
in the event of divorce, annulment of the marriage or death ofthe
husband, just like the Muslim woman, because of the general meaning of
the evidencethat the 'iddah is required, and no differentiation is
made between them on condition that the husband is Muslim, because the
'iddah is required and is a duty towards Allah and towards the
husband. Allah, may He be exalted,says (interpretation of the
meaning):
"O you who believe! When you marry believing women, and then divorce
them before you have sexual intercourse with them, no Iddah (divorce
prescribed period, see have you to count in respect of themem"
[al-Ahzaab 33:49].
So this is his right, and the rights of humans arealso due from the
kitaabi and dhimmi wife. So she is required to observe 'iddah and she
should be compelledto do so, because of the rights of the husband and
child (if she is pregnant), because she is one of those who are
required to fulfil the rights of others. End quote.
Secondly:
Living with a wife who is observing 'iddah varies according to the
type of divorce. If it is a revocable divorce (first or second
talaaq), then there is nothing wrong with it, because the revocably
divorced wife comes under the same ruling as one who is still a wife.
But if it was the final, irrevocable talaaq, then she is a non-mahram
and in that case it is not permissible to look at her or be alone with
her.Undoubtedly their staying in the same house will make it difficult
to adhere to these shar'i guidelines ofnot being alone with herand of
her observing hijab in front of him, as she should do in front ofall
non-mahrams. However, if the house is spacious and it is possible to
allocate one part for him, with a separate entrance and separate
facilities, (then it may be possible for them to live in the same
house). But if they are both in the same house, sharing the same
entrance and facilities, then it is very difficult to avoid the
forbidden matters mentioned above.
Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (may Allah have mercy on him) said:The
thrice-divorced woman is a non-mahramto the man and is like any other
non-mahram woman, so the man doesnot have the right to be alone with
her just as hedoes not have the right to be alone with any other
non-mahram woman; he does not have the right to look at her except
what he may look at of any other non-mahram woman.
End quote from al-Fataawa al-Kubra, 3/349
The irrevocably-divorcedwoman is the one who has been divorced three times.
As for the one who has been divorced once or twice, and her 'iddah has
ended without the husband taking her back, she is not permissible for
her husband except with a new marriage contract.
towards Islam. But Allah has willed that we should separate. My
question is: is the kitaabi(Jewish or Christian) woman required to
observe 'iddah and do I have to impose it on her if she refuses to
observe 'iddah? There is a secondproblem, which is that I am living in
her house and I do not have any other accommodation togo to. What is
the Islamicruling concerning that?.
Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
The kitaabi (Jewish or Christian) wife should observe 'iddah
followingdivorce or death of the husband, just like the Muslim woman.
It says in al-Mawsoo'ah al-Fiqhiyyah (29/336): The Hanafis, Maalikis,
Shaafa'is and Hanbalis, as well as ath-Thawri and Abu 'Ubayd, are of
the view that the kitaabior dhimmi woman is required to observe 'iddah
in the event of divorce, annulment of the marriage or death ofthe
husband, just like the Muslim woman, because of the general meaning of
the evidencethat the 'iddah is required, and no differentiation is
made between them on condition that the husband is Muslim, because the
'iddah is required and is a duty towards Allah and towards the
husband. Allah, may He be exalted,says (interpretation of the
meaning):
"O you who believe! When you marry believing women, and then divorce
them before you have sexual intercourse with them, no Iddah (divorce
prescribed period, see have you to count in respect of themem"
[al-Ahzaab 33:49].
So this is his right, and the rights of humans arealso due from the
kitaabi and dhimmi wife. So she is required to observe 'iddah and she
should be compelledto do so, because of the rights of the husband and
child (if she is pregnant), because she is one of those who are
required to fulfil the rights of others. End quote.
Secondly:
Living with a wife who is observing 'iddah varies according to the
type of divorce. If it is a revocable divorce (first or second
talaaq), then there is nothing wrong with it, because the revocably
divorced wife comes under the same ruling as one who is still a wife.
But if it was the final, irrevocable talaaq, then she is a non-mahram
and in that case it is not permissible to look at her or be alone with
her.Undoubtedly their staying in the same house will make it difficult
to adhere to these shar'i guidelines ofnot being alone with herand of
her observing hijab in front of him, as she should do in front ofall
non-mahrams. However, if the house is spacious and it is possible to
allocate one part for him, with a separate entrance and separate
facilities, (then it may be possible for them to live in the same
house). But if they are both in the same house, sharing the same
entrance and facilities, then it is very difficult to avoid the
forbidden matters mentioned above.
Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (may Allah have mercy on him) said:The
thrice-divorced woman is a non-mahramto the man and is like any other
non-mahram woman, so the man doesnot have the right to be alone with
her just as hedoes not have the right to be alone with any other
non-mahram woman; he does not have the right to look at her except
what he may look at of any other non-mahram woman.
End quote from al-Fataawa al-Kubra, 3/349
The irrevocably-divorcedwoman is the one who has been divorced three times.
As for the one who has been divorced once or twice, and her 'iddah has
ended without the husband taking her back, she is not permissible for
her husband except with a new marriage contract.
He owes zakaah for trade goods but he doesn’t have any cash.
A person owns a piece ofland and one year has passed since he
acquiredit. Zakaah is due becauseit comes under the heading of trade
goods (i.e., he bought it in order to sell it). How should he pay
zakaah onit? Please note that he only has a little cash, very little.
Praise be to Allaah.
Zakaah is due on trade goods according to the Qur'aan and Sunnah.
In the Qur'aan this is indicated by the general meaning of the verse
in which Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
"O you who believe! Spend of the good things which you have (legally)
earned, and of that which We have produced from the earthfor you"
[al-Baqarah 2:267]
Mujaahid said: "Spend ofthe good things which you have (legally)
earned" means trade.
With regard to evidence form the Sunnah, Abu Dawood narrated
(1562)that Samurah ibn Jundub said: The Messenger of Allaah (peace and
blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to command us to give zakaah
from that which we had prepared for sale.
The isnaad of this hadeeth is subject to some discussion, but some of
the scholars classed it as hasan, such as Ibn 'Abd al-Barr (may Allaah
have mercy on him), and it is the view that the scholars of the
Standing Committee for Issuing Fatwas adopted.
See Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa'imah, 9/331.
Zakaah is due on things that have been preparedfor trade if they reach
the nisaab (minimum threshold) and one year has passed (since they
were acquired).
Based on this, zakaah must be paid on the landwhich has been in your
possession for a year; you have to determine the value of the land at
the end of the year, and pay one-quarter of ten percent. So if its
value is one hundred thousand (100,000) dinars, for example, you have
to pay zakaah of 2.5% or two and a half thousand (2,500), and so on.,
If you have cash, then you must pay it and it is not permissible to
delay paying zakaah until the land is sold. But if you donot have cash
with which to pay the zakaah,then it becomes a debt that you owe and
must be paid when it becomes possible to do so. If you cannot do it
until you sell the land, then you have to pay zakaah from the price
you receive for the land for each year in which zakaah was due.
Shaykh Ibn Baaz (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
Zakaah is due on land that is prepared for trade. The evidence for
that is the well known hadeeth of Samurah ibn Jundub (may Allaah be
pleased with him) who said: The Messenger of Allaah (peace and
blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to command us to give zakaah
from that which we had prepared for sale.
He also said:
If land and other similar things such as houses and cars etc are
prepared for sale, then you must pay zakaah on them each year
according to their value, when one full year has passed. It is not
permissible to delay that, except in the case of one who is unable to
pay the zakaah on them because he does not have any other wealth. Then
he may be given a respite until he sells it and pays the zakaah for
all the years, each year according to its value at the end of that
year, regardless of whether the value is more than the price he gets
for it oris less that the price for which he bought the land, car or
house.
Majmoo' Fataawa Ibn
acquiredit. Zakaah is due becauseit comes under the heading of trade
goods (i.e., he bought it in order to sell it). How should he pay
zakaah onit? Please note that he only has a little cash, very little.
Praise be to Allaah.
Zakaah is due on trade goods according to the Qur'aan and Sunnah.
In the Qur'aan this is indicated by the general meaning of the verse
in which Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
"O you who believe! Spend of the good things which you have (legally)
earned, and of that which We have produced from the earthfor you"
[al-Baqarah 2:267]
Mujaahid said: "Spend ofthe good things which you have (legally)
earned" means trade.
With regard to evidence form the Sunnah, Abu Dawood narrated
(1562)that Samurah ibn Jundub said: The Messenger of Allaah (peace and
blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to command us to give zakaah
from that which we had prepared for sale.
The isnaad of this hadeeth is subject to some discussion, but some of
the scholars classed it as hasan, such as Ibn 'Abd al-Barr (may Allaah
have mercy on him), and it is the view that the scholars of the
Standing Committee for Issuing Fatwas adopted.
See Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa'imah, 9/331.
Zakaah is due on things that have been preparedfor trade if they reach
the nisaab (minimum threshold) and one year has passed (since they
were acquired).
Based on this, zakaah must be paid on the landwhich has been in your
possession for a year; you have to determine the value of the land at
the end of the year, and pay one-quarter of ten percent. So if its
value is one hundred thousand (100,000) dinars, for example, you have
to pay zakaah of 2.5% or two and a half thousand (2,500), and so on.,
If you have cash, then you must pay it and it is not permissible to
delay paying zakaah until the land is sold. But if you donot have cash
with which to pay the zakaah,then it becomes a debt that you owe and
must be paid when it becomes possible to do so. If you cannot do it
until you sell the land, then you have to pay zakaah from the price
you receive for the land for each year in which zakaah was due.
Shaykh Ibn Baaz (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
Zakaah is due on land that is prepared for trade. The evidence for
that is the well known hadeeth of Samurah ibn Jundub (may Allaah be
pleased with him) who said: The Messenger of Allaah (peace and
blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to command us to give zakaah
from that which we had prepared for sale.
He also said:
If land and other similar things such as houses and cars etc are
prepared for sale, then you must pay zakaah on them each year
according to their value, when one full year has passed. It is not
permissible to delay that, except in the case of one who is unable to
pay the zakaah on them because he does not have any other wealth. Then
he may be given a respite until he sells it and pays the zakaah for
all the years, each year according to its value at the end of that
year, regardless of whether the value is more than the price he gets
for it oris less that the price for which he bought the land, car or
house.
Majmoo' Fataawa Ibn
The prohibition on tucking up the hair and tying it back at the time of prayer applies only to men, not women.,Dought & clear, -
In one fatwa you mentioned in detail that prayer is not valid with
the hair tied back. Does this apply to women too? Is it permissible
for a woman to pray with her hair tucked up or tied back? I hope that
you can give the evidence in detail because some scholars here in
Pakistan say that that is not permissible.
Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
In the answers to questions no. 96280 and 163428 we stated that it is
makrooh for a man to pray with his hair tuckedup, which means that
hegathers his hair togetherand ties it back, thus preventing it from
prostrating with him. The prohibition in this case means that it is
disliked according to theopinion of the majority of scholars; it does
not mean that it is haraam or prohibited in the sense understood by
the questioner. It says in al-Mawsoo'ah al-Fiqhiyyah (26/109): The
fuqaha' are unanimously agreed that it is makrooh to tie back the hair
when praying. What is meant by tying back is wrapping the braid around
the head as women do, or gatheringthe hair and tying it at the back of
the head. This is makrooh but if a person prays like that, his prayer
is still valid. End quote.
An-Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
The scholars are unanimously agreed that it is not permissible to pray
with one's sleeves or garment rolled up and the like, orwith one's
hair braided or with one's hair wrapped up beneath theturban and so
on. All of that is not permissible according to the consensus of the
scholars, and it is makrooh in the sense of being discouraged and not
proper. If a person prays like that, he has done something wrong but
his prayer is valid. End quote. Sharh Muslim,209.
Secondly:
This ruling applies only to men, not women, because when praying the
woman is commanded to cover herself and if we were to tell the woman
to undo her hair when praying or let her braids prostrate with her, as
we tell men to do, that might lead to it (her hair) becoming uncovered
whilst praying, and it is not permissible to uncover itbecause it is
'awrah. But the hair of a man is not 'awrah, as is quite obvious.
Al-Ghazaali (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
A man should not pray with his hair tied back. This prohibition
applies only to men.
End quote from Ihya' 'Uloom ad-Deen, 1/156
Ash-Shawkaani (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
Al-'Iraqi said: This applies only to men, not women, because women's
hair is 'awrah and must be covered when praying; if a woman were to
leave her hair undone, it might come loose and become difficult to
cover, which would render her prayer invalid.
Moreover, it is difficult for a woman to undo her hair for the prayer,
and we know that the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon
him) granted them a concession allowing them not to undo their braids
when doing ghusl, even though there is a need to make all of the hair
wet, as stated above.
End quote from Nayl al-Awtaar, 2/393
It says in Asna'l-Mataalib,1/163:
Az-Zarkashi said: We should note that this issue (tying back the hair
when praying) applies only to men. With regard to women, the command
to undo the braid causes hardship and is contrary to beautification.
End quote.
Based on that, there is nothing wrong with a woman tucking her hair or
tying it back when she is praying; she is not required to undo her
braids.
the hair tied back. Does this apply to women too? Is it permissible
for a woman to pray with her hair tucked up or tied back? I hope that
you can give the evidence in detail because some scholars here in
Pakistan say that that is not permissible.
Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
In the answers to questions no. 96280 and 163428 we stated that it is
makrooh for a man to pray with his hair tuckedup, which means that
hegathers his hair togetherand ties it back, thus preventing it from
prostrating with him. The prohibition in this case means that it is
disliked according to theopinion of the majority of scholars; it does
not mean that it is haraam or prohibited in the sense understood by
the questioner. It says in al-Mawsoo'ah al-Fiqhiyyah (26/109): The
fuqaha' are unanimously agreed that it is makrooh to tie back the hair
when praying. What is meant by tying back is wrapping the braid around
the head as women do, or gatheringthe hair and tying it at the back of
the head. This is makrooh but if a person prays like that, his prayer
is still valid. End quote.
An-Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
The scholars are unanimously agreed that it is not permissible to pray
with one's sleeves or garment rolled up and the like, orwith one's
hair braided or with one's hair wrapped up beneath theturban and so
on. All of that is not permissible according to the consensus of the
scholars, and it is makrooh in the sense of being discouraged and not
proper. If a person prays like that, he has done something wrong but
his prayer is valid. End quote. Sharh Muslim,209.
Secondly:
This ruling applies only to men, not women, because when praying the
woman is commanded to cover herself and if we were to tell the woman
to undo her hair when praying or let her braids prostrate with her, as
we tell men to do, that might lead to it (her hair) becoming uncovered
whilst praying, and it is not permissible to uncover itbecause it is
'awrah. But the hair of a man is not 'awrah, as is quite obvious.
Al-Ghazaali (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
A man should not pray with his hair tied back. This prohibition
applies only to men.
End quote from Ihya' 'Uloom ad-Deen, 1/156
Ash-Shawkaani (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
Al-'Iraqi said: This applies only to men, not women, because women's
hair is 'awrah and must be covered when praying; if a woman were to
leave her hair undone, it might come loose and become difficult to
cover, which would render her prayer invalid.
Moreover, it is difficult for a woman to undo her hair for the prayer,
and we know that the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon
him) granted them a concession allowing them not to undo their braids
when doing ghusl, even though there is a need to make all of the hair
wet, as stated above.
End quote from Nayl al-Awtaar, 2/393
It says in Asna'l-Mataalib,1/163:
Az-Zarkashi said: We should note that this issue (tying back the hair
when praying) applies only to men. With regard to women, the command
to undo the braid causes hardship and is contrary to beautification.
End quote.
Based on that, there is nothing wrong with a woman tucking her hair or
tying it back when she is praying; she is not required to undo her
braids.
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