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Monday, March 3, 2014

Dought & clear, - Her husband’s family told her that he had divorced her butshe did not hear that from her husband, and hedid not write any divorce paper for her













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Before our marriage, my husband was involved with another married women, because of her, he divorced me, he didnt announce divorce to me, neither send me divorce deed, but his family said he has divorced me,they are still not providing the divorce paper, am i still in his nikah, or an irrevocable divorce has taken place in my situation.
Praise be to Allah
Firstly:
If the husband says to someone else, “Tell my wife that she is divorced,” then divorce takes place as soon as he says that. It says inal-Mabsootby as-Sarkhasi (6/141): If he says to someone else, “Tell my wife that she is divorced,” then she is divorced whether he tells her about that or not. End quote.
Inal-Muheet al-Burhaani fi’l-Fiqh an-Nu‘maani(3/210) it says: If he says to another man, “Tell my wife she is divorced,” then she is divorced as soon as he says that, whether the other man tells her or not. End quote.
Inal-Mudawwanah(2/78) it says: What do you think if a man says to another man, “Tell my wife she is divorced”; when does the divorce take place? Is it on the day he tells her or on the day he told him to tell her? He said: According to the view of Maalik, the divorce takes place on the day he told him to tell her. I said: What if he does not tell her? He said: The divorce still counts as such according to the view of Maalik, even if he did not tell her, because Maalik said, concerning a man who sent an envoy to his wife to tell her that he had divorced her, but the envoy withheld that news: It does not matter; the divorce is still binding. End quote.
Secondly:
With regard to the wife, if two men of good character told her that her husband had divorced her, then she must observe ‘iddah on the basis of their testimony. If they told her that he had issued a first or second talaaq (divorce), then she must count that among the number of divorces. If they told her that he had issued a third (and final) talaaq, then she must keep away from him and leave him.
As-Sarkhasi al-Hanafi said: If two men of good character testify in a woman’s presence that her husband has divorced three times, and he denies that, then they die or disappear before they can give testimony to that effect before the judge, then the woman cannot stay with him, and it is the same as if she had heard him divorce her three times, because if they had given this testimony before the judge, he would have ruled that she is forbidden him. The same applies if they gave that testimony in her presence.
End quote fromal-Mabsoot(10/183).
Inal-Bahr ar-Raa’iqby Ibn Nujaym al-Hanafi (4/141) it says: If two men testify in her presence that he (the husband) divorced her, then she has no right to let him be intimate with her, but if only one person tells her that, then she has no right to refuse intimacy. End quote.
In the same book (4/141) it also says: … If a woman is informed of divorce by two men of good character, it is forbidden for her to let him be intimate with her; their testimony alone is sufficient, with no need for a court ruling. End quote.
Some of the fuqaha’ are of the view that if one man of good character tells her that, she should observe ‘iddah on the basis of what he says, unlike the case if the one who tells her is not of good character. It says inQurrat ‘Ayn al-Akhyaar liTakmilat Radd al-Muhtaar(7/511): If a man of good character tells her that her husband has died or has divorced her thrice, then she may remarry. But if an individual of bad character tells her that, she should double check. End quote.
But what appears to be the case is that these fuqaha’ were speaking of such news being brought by one trustworthy individual on his own in the case of the husband’s absence. It says inal-Fataawa al-Hindiyyah(5/312): If a man is absent from his wife, then a Muslim of good character comes to her and tells her that her husband has divorced her thrice or has died, then she may observe ‘iddah and marry someone else. But if the one who tells her that is not of good character, then she should double check. End quote.
Inal-Mabsootahby as-Sarkhasi (10/179) it says: Based on that, if a woman’s husband is absent and a trustworthy Muslim tells her that her husband has divorced her thrice or has died, or if he is not trustworthy but he brings her a letter from her husband telling her that she is divorced, and she does not know whether he wrote it or not, but she thinks it most likely that it is true, then there is nothing wrong with her observing ‘iddah and remarrying. End quote.
Whatever the case, you can check with your husband about something that his family told you of. If the husband confirms that the divorce has indeed taken place, then you will be certain and your doubt will be dispelled. If the husband denies it and the one who told you is of good character, then in that case you have to refer the matter to the Islamic judge (qaadi) to decide about this difference. It should be noted that divorce does not become finally irrevocable except in the case of the third talaaq; in the case of the first and second talaaq, it is still revocable. Before consummation of the marriage and being truly alone with the husband, any talaaq is revocable; it is also revocable if the husband issues a revocable divorce and the ‘iddah comes to an end without him having taken her back.And Allah knows best.









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Dought & clear, - He imitated the voice of the mu’adhdhin during Ramadan and his family broke their fast early, then he regretted it; what should he do?













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last year during Ramadan I did a big mistake by trying to call adhan close to iftar time(like a joke)at home not in a masjid and unfortunately my mother and uncle both broke their fast by eating little before I informed them ,sincerely I regreted it but, I want to know whether I am to fast 60-60 for both if yes can I live the other 60 till after the next ramadhan? The reason I delayed asking was that I wanted a reliable and authentic source though I ask one great imam in a lecture but he responded to the question the day I didnt attend the lectures and neither of my colleagues heard the response.May Allah(SWT) continue help you with this great gigantic task!
Praise be to Allah
You did wrong by imitating the voice of the mu’adhdhin at the time when the people were waiting for the adhaan in order to break the fast; you should have respected the importance of accuracy in timing for those who were fasting.
If you did that with no intention of disrespect towards the adhaan or the fast, and with no intention of deceiving those who were fasting, then you do not have to do anything. But you do have to learn a lesson from that, which is how to act appropriately in different situations, and that there is a time for seriousness, at which it is not appropriate to engage in any kind of play or fooling about.
But if you did that to deceive them, so that they would break their fast (at the wrong time), then you have to repent, seek forgiveness for what you did and regret your actions. However, you do not have to offer expiation, whether that is by fasting two consecutive months or otherwise.
With regard to your mother and maternal aunt, there is no sin on them, because they broke the fast thinking that the time for Maghrib had begun.
But do they have to make up that day or not? There is a difference of scholarly opinion concerning that; the majority are of the view that that day must be made up.
However some of the scholars favoured the view that it does not have to be made up and the basic principle is that the duty has been fulfilled and there is nothing in Islam to suggest that it must be made up in such cases, even though something similar happened at the time of the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him).
This is the view favoured by Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah, and is also the view of Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allah have mercy on him).
However, if a person wants to be on the safe side with regard to his worship and to avoid an area of considerable scholarly difference of opinion, and he makes up that day, this is better, especially as making up one day is something easy, and is not usually difficult for people.
Shaykh Ibn Baaz (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
If a person drinks, thinking that the sun has set, then the sun appears, then he should make up that day according to the view that is regarded as correct by the majority of scholars, and this is more on the safe side. Some of the scholars do not think that it has to be made up, because he is excused as he did not do that deliberately. However, the view that is more likely to be correct is that it should be made up.
End quote from Fataawa Noor ‘ala ad-Darb by Ibn Baaz (Shuway‘ir compilation, 16/267
And Allah knows best.








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Dought & clear, - Is there a difference between naafil, sunnah, mandoob andmustahabb?













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What is the difference between Sunnah ghair mu aqqadah and nawafil when both are voluntary?
Praise be to Allah
Sunnah mu’akkadah (confirmed Sunnah), naafil (supererogatory), voluntary and mandoob (recommended) all share a similar meaning; they are acts of worship that are enjoined and encouraged in Islam, without being obligatory. The one who does them will be rewarded but there is no sin on the one who does not do them.
That is like praying qiyaam al-layl (optional prayers at night), the sunan rawaatib (regular Sunnah prayers), starting on the right when putting on one’s clothes, and so on. Some of the scholars think that these words are similar in meaning, whilst others – like the Maalikis – differentiate between them. In their view “Sunnah” refers to something that the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) did persistently; naafil refers to things that he did sometimes and not at other times.
Ad-Dasooqi al-Maaliki said: Naafil refers in linguistic terms to something extra or additional; in Islamic terminology it refers to that which the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) did but did not do persistently, i.e., sometimes he did not do it and sometimes he did do it. It does not mean that he stopped doing it altogether, because one of his characteristics is that if he did a righteous deed he would not stop doing it altogether after that. … With regard to “Sunnah”, in linguistic terms it refers to a way or path; in Islamic terminology it refers to that which the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) did openly when he was among a group of people, and he persisted in doing it, but there is no proof to indicate that it is obligatory. Sunnahs that are described as mu’akkadah (confirmed) are those that bring a great deal of reward, such as Witr.
End quote fromHaashiyat ad-Dasooqi, 1/312
Al-Khateeb ash-Sharbeeni ash-Shaafa‘i said: Chapter on offering naafil prayers. Naafil in linguistic terms refers to something extra; in Islamic terminology it refers to actions other than those which are obligatory. They are so called because they are extra to what Allah, may He be exalted, has made obligatory. Naafil is similar to Sunnah, mandoob (recommended), mustahabb (encouraged) and so on. This is the well-known view.
End quote fromMughni al-Muhtaaj, 1/449
Ibn an-Najjaar al-Hanbali said: That which is mandoob (recommended) is called Sunnah, mustahabb, naafil, and so on… The highest of that which is recommended is Sunnah, then fadeelah (virtue), then naafilah.
End quote fromSharh al-Kawkab al-Muneer, p. 126
It should be noted that the Hanafis regard the one who does not do Sunnah mu’akkadah (confirmed Sunnah) actions as having sinned, but they say that his sin is less serious than that of one who fails to do obligatory (waajib) actions.
There is no difference of opinion among the scholars concerning the fact that some Sunnah actions are more confirmed and bring greater reward than others. Thus it may seem that this difference of opinion is the matter of a difference in names only; with regard to the meaning, there is no difference of opinion concerning it.
Ibn Nujaym al-Hanafi said: What appears to be the case from the words of our fellow scholars in our madhhab is that sin is incurred by failing to do obligatory (waajib) or sunnah mu’akkadah actions, according to the correct view, because they clearly stated that the one who omits the sunnahs of the five daily prayers is not said to have sinned, but the correct view is that he is sinning. This was stated inFath al-Qadeer. And they clearly stated that the one who fails to pray in congregation is sinning even though it is a sunnah mu’akkadah according to the correct view. And there are other similar examples to be seen by the one who studies their words. Undoubtedly the sin in some cases is greater than in others, and the sin of one who does not do the sunnah mu’akkadah action is less serious than that of the one who does not do the obligatory (waajib) action.
End quote fromal-Bahr ar-Raa’iq, 1/319
And Allah knows best.









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