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Saturday, July 5, 2014

I'tikaaf, (residing in the mosque for worship), - * Is it permissible forone who is observing i’tikaaf to go out of the mosque?



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I would like to know how i’tikaaf is to be done in the mosque during the last ten days of Ramadaan, noting that I work and my work finishes at 2 p.m. Do I have to stay in the mosque all the time?.
Praise be to Allaah.
If the mu’takif (person observing i’tikaaf) goes out of the mosque, his i’tikaaf is invalidated, because i’tikaaf means staying in the mosque to worship Allaah.
That applies unless the mu’takif goes out for an unavoidable reason, such as to relieve himself, to do wudoo’ or ghusl, or to bring food if he does not have anyone to bring food to the mosque for him, and other similar matters which cannot be avoided and which cannot be done in the mosque.
Al-Bukhaari (2092) and Muslim (297) narrated that ‘Aa’ishah (may Allaah be pleased with her) said: The Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) used not to enter the house except for things that a person needs when he was observing i’tikaaf.
Ibn Qudaamah (may Allaah have mercy on him) said inal-Mughni(4/466):
What is meant by things that a person needs is to urinate and defecate, because every person need to do that. Similarly, he also needs to eat and drink. If he does not have anyone who can bring him food and drink, then he may go out to get them if he needs to. For everything that he cannot do without and cannot do in the mosque, he may go out for that purpose, and that does not invalidate his i’tikaaf, so long as he does not take a long time doing it.
If the mu’takif goes out to do his work, this is something that invalidates i’tikaaf.
The Standing Committee was asked:
Is it permissible for the mu’takif to visit someone who is sick or to accept an invitation or to attend to his family’s needs or to attend a funeral or to go to work?
They replied:
The Sunnah is that the mu’takif should not visit one who is sick during his i’tikaaf, or accept any invitation, or attend to his family’s needs, or attend any funeral, or go to work outside the mosque, because it was proven that ‘Aa’ishah (may Allaah be pleased with him) said: “The Sunnah is for the mu’takif not to visit any sick person, or attend any funeral, or touch his wife or be intimate with her, or to go out for any purpose except those which cannot be avoided.”
Narrated by Abu Dawood, 2473.
Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah, 10/410.






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I'tikaaf, (residing in the mosque for worship), - * Conditions of I’tikaaf



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What are the conditions of i'tikaaf? Is fasting one of them? Is it permissible for the mu’takif (person in i’tikaaf) to visit one who is sick, or to accept an invitation, or to attend to his family’s needs, or to attend a funeral, or to go to work?.
Praise be to Allaah.
It is prescribed to observe i’tikaaf in a mosque in which prayers in congregation are held. If the mu’takif is one of those for whom Jumu’ah is obligatory and the period of his i’tikaaf will include a Friday, it is better for him to stay in a mosque where Jumu’ah prayer is observed.
It is not a condition for him or her to be fasting.
The Sunnah is for the mu’takif not to visit any sick person during his i'tikaaf, or to accept any invitation, attend to his family’s needs, attend any funeral or go to work outside the mosque, because it was proven that ‘Aa’ishah (may Allaah be pleased with her) said: “The Sunnah for the mu’takif is not to visit any sick person, or attend any funeral, or touch or be intimate with any woman, or go out for any reason except those which cannot be avoided.”Narrated by Abu Dawood, 2473.




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I'tikaaf, (residing in the mosque for worship), - * The guidance of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be uponhim) regardingi’tikaaf



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I would like to know the guidance of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) with regard to i’tikaaf.
Praise be to Allaah.
The guidance of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) with regard to i’tikaaf was the most perfect and moderate of guidance.
Once he observed i’tikaaf in the first ten days of Ramadaan, then in the middle ten days, seeking Laylat al-Qadr. Then he was told that it is in the last ten days, so then he always observed i’tikaaf during the last ten days, until he met his Lord.
On one occasion he did not observe i’tikaaf during the last ten days, so he made it up in Shawwaal and observed i'tikaaf during the first ten days thereof. This was narrated by al-Bukhaari and Muslim. In the year in which he died, he observed i'tikaaf for twenty days. Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 2040.
It was said that the reason for that is that he knew his life was drawing to a close, so he wanted to increase his good deeds, to show his ummah how to strive hard in doing good deeds when the opportunity for doing so drew to close, so that they could meet Allaah in the best way. And it was said that the reason was that Jibreel used to review the Qur’aan with him once each Ramadaan, but in the year in which he died, he reviewed it with him twice, which is why his i’tikaaf was twice as long as usual.
A more likely reason is that he observed i’tikaaf for twenty days in that year because the year before he had been traveling. This is indicated by the report narrated by al-Nasaa’i and Abu Dawood, and classed as saheeh by Ibn Hibbaan and others, from Ubayy ibn Ka’b who said: The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to observe i’tikaaf during the last ten days of Ramadaan, but he travelled one year and did not observe i’tikaaf, so the following year he observed i’tikaaf for twenty days.Fath al-Baari.
The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to order that a kind of tent be pitched for him in the mosque, and he would stay in it, keeping away from people and turning to his Lord, so he could be on his own with his Lord in a true sense of the word.
On one occasion he observed i’tikaaf in a small tent, and put a reed mat over the door. Narrated by Muslim, 1167.
Ibn al-Qayyim said inZaad al-Ma’aad, 2/90:
All of this to achieve the spirit and purpose of i'tikaaf, and is the opposite of what the ignorant do, whereby the place of i’tikaaf becomes a place of gathering and meeting with people and chatting to them. This is one thing, and i'tikaaf as observed by the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) is something else.
He used to stay in the mosque the whole time, and not leave it except to relieve himself. ‘Aa’ishah (may Allaah be pleased with her) said: “He would not enter his house for anything except for a need when he was observing i'tikaaf.” Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 2029; Muslim, 297. According to a report narrated by Muslim: “Except for human needs.” Al-Zuhri interpreted this as referring to urination and defecation.
He (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) made sure he remained clean. He would lean his head out of the mosque into ‘Aa’ishah’s apartment so that she should wash his head and comb his hair.
Al-Bukhaari (2028) and Muslim (297) narrated that ‘Aa’ishah (may Allaah be pleased with her) said: “The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to lean his head towards me when he was observing i’tikaaf in the mosque, and I would comb his hair, when I was menstruating.” According to a report also narrated by al-Bukhaari: “And I would wash it.”
Al-Haafiz said:
This hadeeth indicates that it is permissible to clean oneself, put on perfume, wash oneself, comb one’s hair etc (when in i’tikaaf). The majority of scholars are of the view that nothing is makrooh except that which it is makrooh to do in the mosque.
When he was in i’tikaaf, the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) did not visit the sick or attend funerals. This was so that he could concentrate fully on conversing with Allaah and achieving the purpose of i’tikaaf, which is to cut oneself off from people and turn to Allaah.
‘Aa’ishah said: The Sunnah is for the person in i'tikaaf not to visit the sick or attend funerals, or to be intimate with his wife. But there is nothing wrong with his going out for essential needs. Narrated by Abu Dawood, 2473; classed as saheeh by al-Albaani inSaheeh Abi Dawood.
“or to be intimate with his wife” means intercourse. This was stated by al-Shawkaani inNayl al-Awtaar.
Some of his wives used to visit him when he was in i’tikaaf. When she stood up to leave, he would take her home – that was at night.
It was narrated from Safiyyah the wife of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) that she came to the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) and visited him when he was in i’tikaaf in the mosque, during the last ten days of Ramadaan. She spoke with him for a while, then she stood up to leave. The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) stood up with her to take her home. Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 2035; Muslim, 2175.
In conclusion, his i’tikaaf was moderate and not harsh. He spent all his time remembering Allaah and turning to Him in worship, seeking Laylat al-Qadr.
See:Zaad al-Ma’aadby Ibn al-Qayyim, 2/90;al-I’tikaaf Nazrah Tarbawiyyahby Dr ‘Abd al-Lateef Balto.




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Taraaweeh prayers, - Dought&clear, - * Is it essential for him to stay with the imam until the end of Taraweeh prayer in orderto be rewarded?




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One of the imams stated that it is essential to complete Taraweeh prayer with the imam and not to leave halfway through, because what you have done with him, whether it is two rak’ahs or four, will not count for you. Is this correct?.
Praise be to Allaah.
This view is undoubtedly incorrect. It is not permissible for anyone to attribute to Islam something that is not part of it. Allaah has forbidden us to speak of Him without knowledge, as He says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Say (O Muhammad): (But) the things that my Lord has indeed forbidden are Al‑Fawaahish (great evil sins and every kind of unlawful sexual intercourse) whether committed openly or secretly, sins (of all kinds), unrighteous oppression, joining partners (in worship) with Allaah for which He has given no authority, and saying things about Allaah of which you have no knowledge”
[al-A’raaf 7:33]
Whoever stands with the imam until he has completed the prayer, it is equivalent to spending the whole night in prayer.
It was narrated that Abu Dharr (may Allaah be pleased with him) said: The Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever stands with the imaam until he finishes, it is equivalent to spending the whole night in prayer.”
Narrated by al-Tirmidhi, 806; Abu Dawood, 1375; al-Nasaa’i, 1605; Ibn Maajah, 1327. Classed as saheeh by al-Tirmidhi, Ibn Khuzaymah (3/337), Ibn Hibbaan (3/340) and al-Albaani inIrwa’ al-Ghaleel, 447.
This reward (the reward of spending the whole night in prayer) is not attained by anyone except the one who stands with the imam for the whole prayer, until he completes it, as the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said.
As for the one who prays as much as he can and then leaves before the imam has completed his prayer, only what he has prayed will be recorded for him, but it will not be recorded as if he spent the entire night in prayer. Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“So whosoever does good equal to the weight of an atom (or a small ant) shall see it.
8. And whosoever does evil equal to the weight of an atom (or a small ant) shall see it”
[al-Zalzalah 99:7-8]
Perhaps your imam wanted to say that but he expressed it incorrectly, or perhaps you did not really understand what he meant.
And Allaah knows best.



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Taraaweeh prayers, - Dought&clear, - * Does the one who starts to pray Taraweeh haveto complete it?




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If a Muslim starts to pray Taraweeh, does he have to complete it? Or can he pray as much as he wants and then leave?.
Praise be to Allaah.
There is no doubt that Taraweeh is a Sunnah and is naafil; it is the qiyaam of Ramadan. The same may be said of night prayers, Duha (forenoon) prayer and the regular Sunnah prayers that are offered along with the obligatory prayers. All of them are naafil, so he may do them if he wants or not do them if he wants, but doing them is better.
If he starts to pray Taraweeh with the imam and wants to leave before completing it, there is nothing wrong with that, but staying with the imam until he finishes is better, and it will be recorded for him as if he spent this night in prayer, because the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said: “Whoever prays qiyaam with the imam until he finishes, Allah will record for him the qiyaam of one night.” So if he stays with the imam until he completes it, he will have attained the virtue of spending the whole night in prayer, but if he leaves after praying some rak‘ahs, there is nothing wrong with that and no sin, because it is naafil. End quote.
Shaykh ‘Abd al-Azeez ibn Baaz (may Allah have mercy on him)





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Taraaweeh prayers, - Dought&clear, - * Taraaweeh prayer is not bid’ah and there is no specific number of rak’ahs




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On the occasion of the blessed month of Ramadaan, the people turn to Taraaweeh prayer. My question is: there are some who pray eleven rak’ahs immediately after ‘Isha’ prayer, following the example of the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him); and there are those who pray twenty-one rak’ahs, ten after ‘Isha’ and ten before Fajr, then they pray Witr. What is the shar’i ruling on this way of praying Taraaweeh? Please note that there are those who say that praying qiyaam before Fajr is bid’ah. May Allaah reward you with good.
Praise be to Allaah.
Taraaweeh prayer is Sunnah according to the consensus of the Muslims, as al-Nawawi (may Allaah have mercy on him) said inal-Majmoo’.
Taraaweeh prayer was encouraged by the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), for example when he said: “Whoever spends the nights of Ramadaan in prayer out of faith and in the hope of reward, his previous sins will be forgiven.” Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 37; Muslim, 760
So how can it be a bid’ah when the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) encouraged us to do it and the Muslims are unanimously agreed that it is mustahabb!
Perhaps the one who said that it is bid’ah meant that gathering to offer Taraaweeh prayer in the mosques is bid’ah.
This too is incorrect, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) prayed Taraaweeh in congregation with his companions for many nights, then he stopped doing that lest it be made obligatory upon the Muslims. Then when the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) died and the revelation came to an end, this concern was no longer an issue, because it could not be made obligatory after the death of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him). So ‘Umar (may Allaah be pleased with him) gathered the Muslims to pray Taraaweeh in congregation. See Question no. 21740.
The time for Taraaweeh prayer is from after ‘Isha’ prayer until dawn comes. See Question no. 37768.
There is no specific number of rak’ahs for Taraaweeh prayer, rather it is permissible to do a little or a lot. The two ways mentioned in the question are both permissible.
That should be based on whatever the people in each mosque think is suitable for them.
The best is that which was proven from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), which is that he never did more then eleven rak’ahs when praying qiyaam al-layl, in Ramadaan or at other times.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen said, after mentioning the number of rak'ahs in Taraaweeh prayer:
The matter is broad in scope. No one should be denounced for praying eleven or twenty-three, because the matter is broader in scope than that, praise be to Allaah.
Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen, 1/407
And Allaah knows best.





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Taraaweeh prayers, - Dought&clear, - * Ruling on raising one's voice in sending blessings upon the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allaahbe upon him) between the rak’ahs of Taraweeh




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What is the ruling on raising one's voice in sending blessings upon the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allaah be upon him) and praying that Allaah be pleased with the Rightly Guided Caliphs between the rak’ahs of Taraweeh?.
Praise be to Allaah.
There is no basis for that -- as far as we know – in sharee’ah. Rather it is an innovation so it should not be done. Nothing will be good for the last of this ummah except that which was good for the first of it, which is following the Qur'aan and Sunnah and the path of the early generations of the ummah (the salaf) and avoiding that which differs from that. End quote.
Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn Baaz(11/369).
And Allaah knows best.





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Zakaath, - Dought&clear, - Zakaahon shares




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I work in the field of buying and selling Saudi shares, and the way I work is that I sell the share as soon as the price rises and I am able to make a profit, and I do not wait for reports about the companies’ profits.
My question is: I bought some shares in the electrical company five months ago for 172 riyals per share. After I bought them, they went down to 147 riyals and have not yet gone back up to the purchase price. Is there any zakaah due on these shares? How should the zakaah be paid? Is it based on the purchase price or the current price which is 147?.
Praise be to Allaah.
These shares are now regarded as trade goods, because trade goods are anything that is prepared for sale. So zakaah is due on them.
The zakaah on trade goods is worked out on the basis of their value at the end of the year, whether it is more than the purchase price or less.
See question no. 65515
Based on this, if these shares reach the nisaab, or they reach the nisaab when added to the cash money that you have, then you should pay zakaah on them according to their value on the day when the year ends.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen said:
The way in which zakaah is paid on shares in companies is as follows: if the state undertakes the mission of calculating and collecting the zakaah, then you have discharged your responsibility, otherwise zakaah must be paid in the following manner: they should be evaluated every year and one-quarter of one-tenth should be paid, if the purpose of them is to trade. But if the purpose is investment, then no zakaah is due on them, but zakaah is due on any profits they produce if it is in the form of money and one year has passed. End quote.
Majmoo’ Fataawa Ibn ‘Uthaymeen, 18/196
The Standing Committee was asked: Is there any zakaah on shares and certificates? How should it be paid?
They replied:
Zakaah is due on shares and promissory notes if they represent money or trade goods, so long as the one who is keeping the money is not going through hardship or delay payment unduly. End quote.
Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah, 9/354
The Standing Committee was also asked about shares through which one buys land and real estate.
They replied:
The shares mentioned in the question are a kind of trade goods, so zakaah must be paid on them, to be evaluated every year according to their current value, not the purchase price. If the owner has money he may pay from that, otherwise he should pay the zakaah for past years from their value after selling them and taking the money. End quote.
Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah, 9/353
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked: Should zakaah on shares be based on the official value of the share or on the market value, or what?
He replied:
Zakaah on shares and other trade goods should be based on the market value. If it was worth one thousand at the time of purchase, then the value rises to two thousand at the time when zakaah becomes due, then zakaah should be based on the value of two thousand, because what matters is the value of a thing when zakaah becomes due, not when it is bought. End quote.
Majmoo’ Fataawa Ibn ‘Uthaymeen, 18/197
It should be noted that if trade goods are bought with gold or silver or cash (riyals, dollars or other currencies), or with other goods, then the year for those goods starts from the time when one acquired the wealth with which one bought them. Based on this, the new year does not start from the time when one takes possession of the new goods, rather it starts from the time when one acquired the wealth with which one bought them.
And Allaah knows best.





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Zakaath, - Dought&clear, - It is not permissibleto estimate anything otherthan fruits




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Is it permissible to estimate trade goods when it is not possible or is too difficult for the businessman to count them accurately?.
Praise be to Allaah.
What is meant by estimating is when experts look at the date palms – for example – after it is clear that the unripe dates are in good condition, and they see how many dates they are likely to produce, and the zakaah is given on that basis. This is a kind of speculation and conjecture without precisely counting the wealth. The reason why this is prescribed in the case of fruits is that the owner of the fruit may need to eat some of it or give it to others or sell it when it is still unripe, before it ripens. In that case it is not possible to define zakaah precisely, so Islam allows estimating it so as to avoid hardship and difficulty.
There is no report that sharee’ah allows estimating with regard to any kind of wealth other than fruits, because fruits are the type of wealth which it is difficult or impossible to count precisely. But with other types of wealth that are subject to zakaah – such as trade goods – it is possible to count them precisely.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked about estimating trade goods if it is impossible or too difficult for the businessman to count them. He replied:
It is not permissible to estimate them, because estimating was mentioned only with regard to fruits, and some scholars also added crops. As for other types of wealth, it is not possible to estimate them because they are of many types. But the person should try hard as hard as he can and be cautious. If he counts this item as being one hundred and twenty, he should pay zakaah on one hundred and twenty, so that he will have done his duty. End quote.
Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen(18/232).
And Allaah knows best.




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Zakaath, - Dought&clear, - If the land does not sell, is zakaah due on it?




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I have bought some land, intending to sell it when its value increases. But its value decreased and it did not sell, it remained in my possession for 10 years and its value did not increase, should I pay Zakah on it?.
Praise be to Allaah.
Land that is bought with the intention of selling it after a while when prices have increased is subject to zakaah, because it comes under the heading of trade goods.
The value of trade goods should be worked out at the end of the year based on the current market price, regardless of the price for which they were bought, and zakaah must be paid. The rate of zakaah is one quarter of one tenth.
See the answer to question no. 38886.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked: I have a piece of land and I am waiting for the prices of land to go up so that I can sell it, and it has been several years. Should I pay zakaah on it?
He replied: If a person buys land to make a profit then the land does not sell and becomes cheaper, and he keeps it until the price goes up, then he must pay zakaah on it every year, because it comes under the heading of trade goods. If he does not have anything with which to pay the zakaah, and he cannot find a buyer, then he should work out its price at the time when zakaah becomes obligatory and work out its zakaah, and in the following year he should work out the zakaah on its value, then in the third year and so on. Then whenever he sells it he should pay the total amount of zakaah that he had calculated. End quote.
Majmoo’ al-Fataawa(18/225).
He was also asked about a person who bought some land with the aim of trading in it, but it remained in his possession for a number of years. Does he have to pay zakaah on it?
He replied: If a person buys land for trading, then he has to pay zakaah every year, whether the value increases or decreases, and whether it sells quickly or it does not sell. He should work out its value every year at the current market price, then if he has money he should pay its zakaah from the money that he has, and if he does not have any money he should work out the zakaah for each year, and when he sells it he should pay the zakaah for the past years. End quote fromLiqa’ al-Baab al-Shahri(15/12).
And Allaah knows best.





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Fasting, - Doupht&clear, - She has fibroids and bleeds all month; how should she pray and fast?




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My mother is fifty-one years old; she has fibroids and suffers from bleeding throughout the month. Can she pray and fast, and if so how?.
Praise be to Allaah.
The scholars differed concerning menopause in women. Some of them said that it occurs at the age of fifty years or sixty years; the correct view is that there is no limit to it and it may vary from one woman to another.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
Women vary; some reach menopause at an early age, and some continue menstruating until after the age of sixty or seventy. If a woman sees menses then she is a menstruating woman, no matter what her situation is, because Allah, may He be blessed and exalted, says (interpretation of the meaning):“And those of your women as have passed the age of monthly courses” [al-Talaaq 65:4], and He did not mention any particular age. So menopause differs from one woman to another.
To sum up, menses is, as Allah described it, anadha(harm, illness, painful condition). When this bleeding occurs, she has to do what is required. End quote.
Fataawa Noor ‘ala al-Darbby Ibn ‘Uthaymeen, 12/123
Based on that, if your mother had reached the stage of menopause and stopped menstruating, then developed this problem, the blood is not menses, so she should wash the blood away, wear a pad and do wudoo’ for each prayer.
If that happened to her before she reached the stage of menopause, then she has to work out the days of her usual period each month, then stop praying at that time. Then when that time ends, she should do ghusl and start praying again, even if she is bleeding, because it is not deemed to be menstrual blood.
The scholars of the Standing Committee for Issuing Fatwas said:
If a woman experiences continuous bleeding, when she wants to pray, she should wash her private parts, then put a pad so as to prevent leaks; then she should do wudoo’ and pray. She should do that at the time of each prayer, because the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said to the woman who was experiencing istihaadah (irregular vaginal bleeding): “Do wudoo’ at the time of each prayer.” End quote.
Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah, 4/259
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allah have mercy on him) was asked about a woman who reached the age of fifty-six, whose menstrual period had become irregular since the age of fifty. She would bleed two or three times a month, lasting for up to nine days, with blood like menstrual blood. In between the bleeding, she did not see any tuhr (white discharge indicating the end of menses) or complete dryness. Every time she started bleeding, she would stop fasting and praying. During this time, it was discovered that she had a growth in her uterus, and the doctor said that it was causing the bleeding. What should this woman do with regard to prayer, fasting and marital relations. What is the ruling on the past six years?
He replied: If the doctors have determined that the bleeding is due to sickness, then she is pure (taahir) and should pray and fast. If that is not the case then she comes under the ruling on istihaadah; she should stop praying and fasting for the length of her previous period each month, then she should pray and fast even if she is bleeding, and she may have marital relations with her husband. With regard to what is past, she does not have to do anything, because the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) did not instruct women who suffered istihaadah to repeat previous prayers. End quote.
Thamaraat al-Tadween, p. 25
And Allah knows best.





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Fasting, - Doupht&clear, - Her nifaas (post-partum bleeding) came back when she was fasting




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If a woman’s nifaas stops after one week of giving birth and she starts fasting with Muslims during Ramadaan then the bleeding reoccurs, should she break her fast in this case? Does she have to make up the days she fasted and the days she did not fast?.
Praise be to Allaah.
If the woman who is bleeding in nifaas becomes pure (i.e., the bleeding stops) within forty days and she fasts for a few days, then the bleeding comes back within forty days, then her fast is valid, but she has to stop praying and fasting during the days on which the bleeding comes back – because it is (still) nifaas – until she becomes pure or the forty days end. When forty days have ended, she has to do ghusl, even if she has not seen the tuhr (white discharge signalling the end of menses or nifaas), because forty days marks the end of nifaas according to the more sound of the two scholarly opinions. After that, she has to do wudoo’ at the time of every prayer, until the bleeding stops, as the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) instructed the woman who was suffering from istihaadah (non-menstrual vaginal bleeding). And her husband may be intimate with her after forty days, even if she has not seen the tuhr, because the bleeding in this case is irregular bleeding which does not prevent her from praying and fasting, and does not prevent her husband from being intimate with his wife.
But if the bleeding after forty days coincides with the usual time of her menses, then she should stop praying and fasting and regard it as menses. And Allaah is the Source of Strength.





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Fasting, - Doupht&clear, - Can he work at night and not fast by day because of taking medicine?




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I am twenty-seven years old and I have been suffering a chronic nervous disease for six years. I was unable to work and my father was the one who has been taking care of buying the medicines, which are very expensive. I looked for work but I could not find anything except working as a security guard at night, from 6 PM to 6 AM, so that I could help in buying the medicines. I consulted my doctor and he advised me to take the medicine during the day in three doses instead of at night, because it causes sleepiness. This year I want to fast the month of Ramadan, so I am asking you to please advise me of the best way and is fasting obligatory for me?
Praise be to Allah.
Firstly:
We ask Allah the Almighty, Lord of the Mighty Throne, to grant you a speedy recovery.
Secondly:
It is permissible for the one who is sick to not fast during the day in Ramadan, then when Allah heals him, he must make up the days when he did not fast, because Allah, may He be exalted, says (interpretation of the meaning):
“and whoever is ill or on a journey, the same number (of days which one did not observe Sawm (fasts) must be made up) from other days. Allah intends for you ease, and He does not want to make things difficult for you”
[al-Baqarah 2:185].
Thirdly:
First of all you should try to look for work during the day that is compatible with your illness, as you have to take the medicine at night. By doing that you will combine both interests. If you cannot find any work except at night, and you are not able to take the medicine then because it makes you sleepy, there is nothing wrong with you working at night and taking the medicine during the day, and this will be an excuse for you not to fast.
If it is possible for you to leave the job, even if that is during the month of Ramadan, and then resume after Ramadan, that is better, so long as it will not result in negative consequences for you, such as being dismissed from your job. See the answer to question no. 65871
Al-‘Allaamah al-Haytami (may Allah have mercy on him) said: It is permissible not to do it (i.e., fasting) in the case of work such as harvesting or building for himself or for someone else, voluntarily or in return for payment, if it is not possible to work at night and if fasting could affect his ability to earn a living that he cannot do without. In that case, it appears that he may break the fast, but only as much as is necessary.
End quote fromTuhfat al-Muhtaaj, 3/430
In other words, it is permissible to break the fast for the one whose ability to earn al iving that he cannot do without will be affected. But his breaking of the fast should only be as much as is necessary. Based on that, there is no sin on you for breaking the fast if you are not able to leave your job, even if that is only for Ramadan.
If there is a hope of recovery from this sickness, then you have to make up the missed fasts when you are able to do so.
If the sickness will remain with you, according to the doctor’s opinions, then you do not have to make up the fasts, but you have to feed one poor person for each day you do not fast.
And Allah knows best.




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