How to Perform Eid Prayer

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" Eid is Waajib! "
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{for Hanafi}
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The Eid Prayer has two rak'ah to perform in the normal way, with the only addition of six takbirs, three of them in the beginning of the first rak'ah, and three of them just before ruku' in the second rak'ah.
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*The detailed way of performing the 'Eid prayer is as follows:
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The Imam will begin the prayer without Adhan or Iqamah. He will begin the prayer by reciting takbir of Tahrimah (Allahu Akbar). You should raise your hands up to the ears, and reciting the takbir, you give a little pause during which you should recite Thana' (Subhanak Allahumma.......)· After the completion of Thana' the Imam will recite takbir (Allahu Akbar) three times, and after reciting each Takbir (Allahu Akbar) in a low voice, you should bring your hands down and leave them earthwards. But, after the third takbir, you should set them at the level of your navel as you do in the normal prayer.
After these three takbirs the Imam will recite the Holy Qur'an, which you should listen quietly. The rest of the rak'ah will be performed in the normal way.
After rising for the second rak'ah, the Imam will begin the recitations from the Qur'an during which you should remain calm and quiet. When the Imam finishes his recitation, he will recite three takbirs once again, but this time it will be before bowing down for ruku'. At each takbir you should raise your hands up to the ears, and after saying "Allahu Akbar' bring them down and leave them earthwards. After these three takbirs have been called and completed, the Imam will say another takbir for bowing down into the ruku' position. At this takbir you need not raise your hands. You just bow down for your ruku' saying, 'Allahu Akbar'. The rest of the Salah will be performed in its usual way.
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{for Shafi - * according to the Shafi'ee Madhab, there are twelve extra Takbiraats in Eid Salaah, i.e. 7 in the first and 5 in the second Rak'ah.}

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Menstruation and Post-Natal bleeding, - Dought& clear, - * Women in nifaas fasting if the bleeding stops before forty days

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There is a woman who gave birth to a baby approximately one week before Ramadan. For the first third of Ramadan she did not fast, but after the first third of Ramadan the bleeding stopped and she began to see a lot of white discharge. Please note that she started to fast after the first third of Ramadan, i.e., after the bleeding stopped and the white discharge appeared, but there was a lot of it. Is her fasting valid, in sha Allah? Is she taahir (in a state of purity)?.
Praise be to Allaah.
If a woman who is in nifaas (i.e., bleeding following childbirth) sees al-tuhr (end of bleeding) before forty days had passed, she should do ghusl and pray and fast. The tuhr – following menstruation or nifaas – is recognised by one of two signs:
1. White discharge
2. Complete dryness, in the sense that there is no trace of blood, or yellowish or brownish discharge.
Al-Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) said: The sign that menses has ended and tuhr (purity) has begun is the cessation of bleeding and of yellowish and brownish discharge. If it stops, then the woman has become pure, regardless of whether any white discharge comes after that or not.
End quote fromal-Majmoo‘, 2/562
If in the case asked about the bleeding had stopped, and there was no longer any trace of it or any yellowish or brownish discharge, that this was the sign of tuhr (i.e., she had become pure), and her fast is valid in that case, and it does not matter if there was any white discharge, because that is normal secretion from the vagina.
And Allah knows best.

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Menstruation and Post-Natal bleeding, - Dought& clear, - * “Spotting” after the period ends is not regarded as menses

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I fasted four days in Ramadan, then my period came. After my period ended, I purified myself (did ghusl) and started fasting, but some drops of blood came out (“spotting”), then they stopped. Then when I purified myself and started fasting again, the spotting started again, and this lasted for the rest of the month of Ramadan. What is the answer concerning this?.
Praise be to Allaah.
If the situation is as you describe, the drops of blood that appear after becoming pure from menses are not regarded as menses, because it is not ongoing bleeding. So it does not come under the ruling of menstruation, and you have to fast and pray, and do wudoo’ for each prayer when the time for the prayer begins, like women who suffer istihaadah (non-menstrual vaginal bleeding) and those affected by ongoing urinary incontinence. And your fasting during those days is valid.
And Allah is the source of strength. May Allah sent blessings and peace upon our Prophet Muhammad and his family and Companions.

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Menstruation and Post-Natal bleeding, - Dought& clear, - * Her nifaas (postpartum bleeding) continued for nine months and she did not pray during that time

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My friend continued to bleed following childbirth (nifaas) for nine months, and she did not pray during that time except rarely. What should she do now?
If we say that the maximum length of nifaas is 60 days, then she still has six months of prayers to make up. How can she make them up?.
Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
We have previously discussed the difference of opinion among the scholars concerning the maximum length of nifaas; the most correct view is that it is forty days. See the answer to question no. 10488.
Secondly:
With regard to the bleeding that occurs after the period of nifaas has ended, if it comes at the usual time of the menstrual period, then it is menses and the woman should not pray or fast or have intercourse with her husband at that time, until her monthly period has ended, as is well known.
If it occurs at a time other than the usual time of the menstrual period, then it is istihaadah (non-menstrual bleeding) and in this case she should fast and pray, and her husband may have intercourse with her. But she has to do wudoo’ for each obligatory prayer after the time for it begins, then with that wudoo’ she may offer whatever naafil prayers she wishes.
For more information please see the answer to question no. 106464
Thirdly:
The scholars (may Allah have mercy on them) differed concerning the case of a woman suffering istihaadah if she refrains from praying out of ignorance: does she have to make up the prayers that she omitted? There are two opinions:
1. That she has to make up the prayers.
2. That she does not have to make up the prayers. This is the view favoured by Shaykh al-Islam (may Allah have mercy on him).
Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (may Allah have mercy on him) said: If the woman who is suffering istihaadah did not pray for some time because she thought that it was not obligatory for her to pray, there are two opinions as to whether it is obligatory for her to make up the prayers. One opinion is that she does not have to make them up – as was narrated from Maalik and others – because when the woman who was suffering from istihaadah said to the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him), “I have been bleeding heavily for some time and it prevents me from praying and fasting,” he told her what she should do in the future, and he did not tell her to make up the prayers of the past. End quote fromMajmoo‘ al-Fataawa, 21/102
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allah have mercy on him) said: It is best if you pray what you omitted during the early days, but if you do not do that there is nothing wrong with it, because the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) told the woman who was suffering from istihaadah and who said that she was suffering heavy bleeding during which she did not pray to count her menses as six or seven days and to pray the rest of the month, but he did not tell her to make up the prayers that she had omitted. If she does make up the prayers that she missed, this is good, because it may be that she was heedless in not asking, but if she does not make them up there is no sin on her. End quote fromMajmoo‘ Fataawa Ibn ‘Uthaymeen, 11/276
To be on the safe side, your friend should make up the prayers that she missed as much as she is able to. So every day she should make up whatever she can of the prayers that she omitted during this time, because it seems that there was a kind of heedlessness on her part as she did not ask even though the time during which she did not pray was lengthy, and usually one does not stop praying for so long. Moreover, she used to pray sometimes, which indicates that perhaps she knew that she should be praying.
And Allah knows best.

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Menstruation and Post-Natal bleeding, - Dought& clear, - * Does bleeding caused by the IUD mean that one cannot pray?

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I have and IUD put in. And I asked the wife of the Sheikh at my local mosque about the procedure of praying while i have the IUD. She said that I can pray, fast, read quran, and have relations with my husband even if I am bleeding. She said because it is not real blood it is just coil blood. Then I wasnt really sure with her answer, so I called another mosque and the Sheikh there said everything opposite. Can you please let me know which method is correct. Can I actually while I am bleeding if I have the IUD.
Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
The basic principle concerning the blood that comes from the woman is that it is menstrual blood, so long as the bleeding has not lasted for longer than fifteen days, after which it is istihaadah (non-menstrual vaginal bleeding) according to the majority of fuqaha’. According to some, it is menstrual blood so long as it has not lasted for longer than one month, after which it becomes istihaadah.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
If the strength of the opinion that there is no minimum or maximum limit for menses is established and it becomes clear that this is more correct view, then it should be noted that every time the woman sees natural blood for which there is no cause such as an injury and the like, then it is menstrual blood, without specifying a particular time frame or age, unless it is ongoing and never stops, or it stops for a short time such as one or two days in the month, in which case it is istihaadah. … Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah said: The basic principle concerning everything that comes out of the womb is that it is menses, unless there is evidence to show that it is istihaadah. He also said: Whatever happens of bleeding is menses, so long as it is not known whether it is bleeding from a vein or an injury. Just as this opinion is the stronger one in terms of evidence, it is also easier to understand and to act upon and apply, than what those who put a time limit on it suggested..
End quote fromRisaalah min ad-Dima’ at-Tabee‘iyyah li’n-Nisa’
Secondly:
The length of the period may increase and decrease, and it may come earlier or later. The blood that comes out in these cases is deemed to be menstrual blood. A woman’s period may usually be seven days, but it may last as long as ten days, for example. Thus the ruling in both cases is that it is menstrual blood.
Thirdly:
Insertion of an IUD usually causes disruption in the menstrual cycle, making it longer or causing it to come earlier or changing the nature of the menstrual blood.
Based on that:
The blood that you are seeing is menstrual blood and it is not acceptable to pray and fast at this time, even if it lasts longer than the usual period, so long as it does not last longer than fifteen days according to the majority view, and does not last longer than a month according to the other view, after which it becomes istihaadah. If it lasts less than fifteen days, it is menstrual bleeding.
The view that the bleeding that occurs with the IUD is not menstrual blood at all is an opinion for which there is no basis.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allah have mercy on him) was asked: There is a woman who had an IUD inserted. Before that procedure her period was seven days, but after that her period increased to ten days. Please note that on the seventh day the bleeding decreases, then on the eighth and ninth day the bleeding gets worse, then it stops after the tenth day.
He said: She should carry on until she becomes pure.
Questioner: Is it part of her period?
Shaykh: Because this IUD changes the period, because it restricts the flow of the blood out of the uterus, and the blood flows more slowly, so the period becomes longer.
End quote fromal-Liqa’ al-Maftooh, 227/27.
And Allah knows best.

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Zakaah , Dought & clear, - * Is it permissible to give zakaah to a family fund to help the poor?

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I have 5000 pounds and one and a half years have passed since I acquired them. What is the zakaah that must be paid? If anything is left of this 5000 after another year has passed, will I have to pay zakaah on it? In our family we have a fund in the name of the family and I pay a certain amount of money to help the poor members of the family. I am late in paying; can I give them the zakaah of this money so long as it is an ongoing charity?.
Praise be to Allaah.
Whoever has money that reaches the nisaab (minimum amount at which zakaah becomes due) and a full hijri year has passed (since acquiring it) has to pay zakaah on it.
This nisaab for money is the equivalent of 85 grams of gold or 595 grams of silver, whichever is lower in value.
Seeal-Sharh al-Mumti’, 6/103-104);Majmoo’ Fataawa Ibn ‘Uthyameen, 18/248.
Based on this, the amount that you have – 5000 pounds – reaches the nisaab, so you have to pay zakaah.
Secondly: The amount that you have to give is one-quarter of one-tenth, or 2.5%. With regard to the amount in question – 5000 pounds – the zakaah that is due is 125 pounds.
Thirdly: If a hijri year has passed since you acquired the nisaab, then zakaah must be paid immediately and it is not permissible to delay it. Seeal-Sharhal-Mumti’, 6/186.
Based on this, your delaying zakaah for half a year after the full year had passed is a shortcoming and you have to repent from that and hasten to give the zakaah.
Fourthly: With regard to your question, “If anything is left of this 5000 after another year has passed, will I have to pay zakaah on it?”, the answer is: every time a year has passed and the nisaab (minimum amount) is still there, zakaah is due on it. If the amount of money falls below the niasaab then no zakaah is due. If the money reaches the nisaab again then zakaah is due again, and the reckoning of the year should start from the time when the money reaches the nisaab.
Fifthly: With regard to giving the zakaah to the family fund, there are eight areas in which zakaah may be spent, which Allaah has described in the verse where He says (interpretation of the meaning):
“As-Sadaqaat (here it means Zakaah) are only for the Fuqaraa’ (poor), and Al‑Masaakeen (the poor) and those employed to collect (the funds); and to attract the hearts of those who have been inclined (towards Islam); and to free the captives; and for those in debt; and for Allaah’s Cause (i.e. for Mujaahidoon — those fighting in a holy battle), and for the wayfarer (a traveller who is cut off from everything); a duty imposed by Allaah. And Allaah is All-Knower, All-Wise”
[al-Tawbah 9:60]
Giving zakaah to poor relatives is better than giving it to others, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Charity given to a poor person is charity, and charity given to a relative is two things: charity and upholding the ties of kinship.” Narrated by al-Nasaa’i, 2582; classed as saheeh by al-Albaani inSaheeh al-Nasaa’i.
There is nothing wrong with giving zakaah to the family fund, so long as you tell the person in charge of the fund that this is zakaah, so that he will spend it in one of the areas defined in the verse quoted above, and he will hasten to spend it immediately.
And Allaah knows best.

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Zakaah , Dought & clear, - * It is notpermissible to give zakaah to kaafirs except if it is to attractthe hearts of those who have been inclined towards Islam

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Is it permissible to give zakaah to a kaafir?.
Praise be to Allaah.
It is not permissible to give zakaah to a kaafir except if it is to attract the hearts of those who have been inclined towards Islam.
Ibn Qudaamah said inal-Mughni(4/106):
We do not know of any difference of opinion among the scholars regarding the fact that zakaah cannot be given to a kaafir. Ibn al-Mundhir said: Everyone from whom we acquired knowledge among the scholars is agreed that a dhimmi (non-Muslim living under Muslim rule) cannot be given anything from the zakaah, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said to Mu’aadh: “Teach them that they are obliged to give zakaah, to be taken from their rich and given to their poor.” He specified that it was to be given to their poor, i.e., the poor Muslims, just as he specified that it was to be taken from their rich. End quote.
If a kaafir is one of those who is inclined towards Islam, then he may be given something from the zakaah,
Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“As-Sadaqaat (here it means Zakaah) are only for the Fuqaraa’ (poor), and Al‑Masaakeen(the poor) and those employed to collect (the funds); and to attract the hearts of those who have been inclined (towards Islam); and to free the captives; and for those in debt; and for Allaah’s Cause (i.e. for Mujaahidoon — those fighting in a holy battle), and for the wayfarer (a traveller who is cut off from everything); a duty imposed by Allaah. And Allaah is All-Knower, All-Wise”
[al-Tawbah 9:60]
It is permissible to give zakaah to a kaafir, if we hope that by giving him something he will become Muslim.
Seeal-Sharh al-Mumti’, 6/143-145
Ibn Qudaamah said inal-Mughni, 4/108:
The kaafir should not be given anything of the zakaah unless he is one of those who are inclined towards Islam.
It says inal-Mawsoo’ah(14/233):
Zakaah may be given to a kaafir who we hope will become Muslim, to encourage him to become Muslim because he is inclined towards Islam. End quote.
Shaykh Ibn Baaz was asked:
Is it correct to give zakaah to a dhimmi?
He replied:
According to the majority of scholars, zakaah cannot be given to a dhimmi or any other kaafir. This is the correct view, and there are many verses and ahaadeeth which speak of this. Zakaah is a means of help given by the Muslims to their poor, and to take care of their needs, so it must be distributed among their own poor and others among the eight categories mentioned in the verse, unless there are kaafirs who it is hoped will become Muslim, namely the leaders who are obeyed among their tribes, who may be given zakaah in order to encourage them to become Muslim, or so that they will withhold their evil from the Muslims. Zakaah may also be given to new Muslims, to strengthen their faith or to encourage their peers to become Muslim too, or for other reasons that have been stated by the scholars.
The basic principle concerning that is the verse in which Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“As-Sadaqaat (here it means Zakaah) are only for the Fuqaraa’ (poor), and Al‑Masaakeen(the poor) and those employed to collect (the funds); and to attract the hearts of those who have been inclined (towards Islam)…”
[al-Tawbah 9:60]
And the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said to Mu’aadh ibn Jabal when he sent him to Yemen:
“Call them to testify that there is no god but Allaah and that I am the Messenger of Allaah. If they obey you in that, then teach them that Allaah has enjoined upon them five prayers each day and night. If they obey you in that, then teach them that Allaah has enjoined upon them charity (i.e., zakaah) to be taken from their rich and given to their poor.” Agreed upon.

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Zakaah , Dought & clear, - * Is it permissible to buy goods for the poor with zakaah funds instead if giving it to them in cash?

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I owe zakaah on my wealth. Is it permissible for me to buy food or clothing with the zakaah money and give them to the poor, instead of giving them cash, because if I give them cash they may spend it on things that are not beneficial, or they may spend it on sinful things?.
Praise be to Allaah.
The basic principle is that zakaah should be taken from the wealth on which zakaah is due, and given to the poor as it is.
Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked about a man who owed zakaah: is it permissible for him to give it to his needy relatives or can he buy clothes or foodstuff for them with it?
He replied:
Praise be to Allaah. It is permissible to give zakaah to those who are entitled to it, even if they are relatives who are not among his dependents, but he should give them of his wealth, and they may delegate someone to buy whatever they want with it.
The Standing Committee for Issuing Fatwas was asked about buying Islamic books with zakaah wealth and distributing them. They replied: It is not permissible to buy books with zakaah wealth and give them away, rather the wealth itself should be given to those who are entitled to it, as mentioned by Allaah in His Book where He said (interpretation of the meaning):
“As-Sadaqaat (here it means Zakaah) are only for the Fuqaraa’ (poor), and Al‑Masaakeen(the poor) and those employed to collect (the funds); and to attract the hearts of those who have been inclined (towards Islam);…”
[al-Tawbah 9:60]
And Allaah is the Source of strength. May Allaah send blessings and peace upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon his family and companions.
Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah, 10/47
If a person who is entitled to zakaah is a sinner and there is the fear that he may use some of this money for sinful purposes, then we should give the zakaah to one who spends on him, or to someone whom we trust will buy him what he needs.
Shaykh Muhammad al-Saalih al-‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
If a person who is addicted to smoking is poor, then we can give the zakaah to his wife and she can buy things herself that are needed for the house, and we can tell him: We have zakaah, do you want us to buy you such and such of essential needs? We can ask him to delegate us to buy these things, and in this way we will achieve the desired goal and avoid something haraam – which is helping him to commit sin, because the one who gives a dirham to a person to buy cigarettes with has helped him to commit sin and has done something that Allaah has forbidden, as He says (interpretation of the meaning):
“do not help one another in sin and transgression”
[al-Maa’idah 5:2]
Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen(17/question no. 262)
He was also asked: Is it permissible to give zakaah in the form of consumable goods and clothing, if it is known that in the case of some poor families it is better to buy these things for them, because there is the fear that if they are given cash, they will spend it on things in which there is no benefit?
He replied:
This is an important matter which people need to know: if the people of this household are poor, and if we give them money they will waste it by buying luxuries and things that are of no benefit, so is it permissible for us to buy them essential needs and give them to them?
What is known to the scholars is that it is not permissible to do this, i.e., it is not permissible for a person to buy specific things with his zakaah and give them instead of money. They said: That is because money is more beneficial to the poor, because he can spend the money however he wants, unlike specific goods of which he may have no need, in which case he will sell them for less.
But there is a way around this if you fear that if you give money to this family, they will spend it on things they do not need. You can say to the head of the household – whether that is the father, the mother, the brother or the uncle: I have zakaah, what are the things you need, so that I can buy them for you and send them to you? If you do it in this way, that is permissible, and the zakaah will be given as it should be.
And Allaah knows best.

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Zakaah , Dought & clear, - * Is it permissible to distribute zakaah on a monthly basis? Can it be converted into food?

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We are in Indian city of new Bombay, in our village muslims are in majority we collect the Zakat in Ramadhan and then distribute whole year among poor in the form of money and food stuff. Is it sharia allow this?.
Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
It is not permissible to give zakaah on wealth or zakaat al-fitr to kaafirs, and it is not permissible to give zakaah to any kaafir except the one who is inclined towards Islam, in the sense that you hope that he will become Muslim if you give him zakaah.
See question no. 39655and 21384.
Secondly:
Once zakaah becomes due on wealth, it must be paid immediately, and it is not permissible to delay it.
Ibn Qudaamah al-Maqdisi (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
If he delays it – i.e., zakaah – in order to give it to one who is more entitled to it among his relatives, or to one who is in great need, if it is a small amount there is nothing wrong with that, but if it is a large amount, it is not permissible.
Al-Mughni, 2/290
The scholars of the Standing Committee were asked about an organization which collects zakaah from the rich then delays distributing it for a year, on the grounds that there is help in the springtime, help in Ramadaan and so on. What is the ruling on this delay, since the owners of the wealth have discharged their duty of paying zakaah and have given it to us (to distribute)?
They replied:
This organization should distribute the zakaah to those who are entitled to it and not delay it if they have found people who are entitled to it.
Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah li’l-Buhooth al’Ilmiyyah wa’l-Ifta’, 9/402
See also question no. 13981.
But on occasion it may be more useful not to give the zakaah to a poor person in one go, so that he will not spend it all and be left with no money; in that case he may be given something each month.
In this case you should discuss the matter with the rich, and collect zakaah from them a year ahead, then give it to the poor in monthly installments, or take it from the rich ahead of time in installments and give it to the poor in monthly payments. Then it will not be delayed after it has become obligatory. This requires discussing it with the rich and convincing them of the good purposes that will be served by that.
Ibn Qudaamah al-Maqdisi (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
Ahmad said: It is not permissible to give zakaah to his relatives in monthly installments, i.e., he should not delay paying it so that he can give it to them in separate amounts, giving them something each month. But if he pays it all to them ahead of time, or to others in separate payments or all at once, that is permissible because it is not being delayed from its time.
End quote fromal-Mughni, 2/290
The scholars of the Standing Committee were asked:
Is it permissible for me to pay my zakaah in advance for the whole year, in the form of regular payments to a poor family each month?
They replied:
There is nothing wrong with giving zakaah before one full year has passed, one or two years in advance, if a good purpose will be served by that, and it is given to a deserving poor family on a monthly basis.

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Fasting, - Doupht&clear, - * Is saying Ramadan Mubarak be bidah

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Is saying "Ramadan Mubarak" or "Ramadan Kareem" considered to be bid3ah?.
Praise be to Allaah.
There is nothing wrong with congratulating one another at the beginning of the month. The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to tell his Companions the good news of the onset of Ramadaan, and urge them to make the most of it. Abu Hurayrah (may Allaah be pleased with him) said: “The Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said, ‘There has come to you Ramadaan, a blessed month. Allaah has made it obligatory on you to fast (this month). During it the gates of Paradise are opened and the gates of Hell are locked, and the devils are chained up. In it there is a night that is better than a thousand months, and whoever is deprived of its goodness is deprived indeed.’” (Reported by al-Nisaa'i, 4/129;Saheeh al-Targheeb, 1/490)
And Allaah knows best.

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Fasting, - Doupht&clear, - * Using something to remove bad breath during Ramadaan

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In the pharmacies there is a kind of perfume that is just for the mouth, which comes in the form of an aerosol. Is it permissible to use it during the day in Ramadaan to remove bad breath?
Praise be to Allaah.
Instead of using an aerosol when fasting, it is enough to use the siwaak which the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) encouraged us to use. If he uses an aerosol and nothing from it reaches his throat, then that is o.k. But it should be noted that the smell that comes from the fasting person’s mouth as a result of the fast is not something to be disliked, because it is the effect of obedience to Allaah. In the hadeeth it says that “the smell from the fasting person’s mouth is better in the sight of Allaah than the fragrance of musk.”

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Fasting, - Doupht&clear, - * Delaying ghusl from janaabah in Ramadaan until the sun has risen does not invalidate the fast

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I once had a wet dream just before sehri... it was not possiblt for me to go and perform ghusl rather.. i felt very shameful to go to perform ghusl... since my parents wud cum to know... so i had my sehri without performing ghusl and tha't morning unfortunately i even didn't pray fajr prayers... but later... i performed ghusl and i parayed by fajr prayers... but i wud like to know whether my fast is valid... 'cuz i think i went wrong here becuz i had my sehri in a sexually impure form.... Is my fast valid?
Praise be to Allaah.
The fast of one who has intercourse with his wife at night and wakes up in the morning in a state of junub is still valid, as is the fast of one who becomes junub in his sleep, whether at night or during the day. There is nothing wrong with delaying ghusl until just before dawn. Rather fasting is invalidated by having intercourse during the day in Ramadaan, from just before dawn until after sunset.
Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah, 10/327
But with regard to your delaying the prayer until the sun had risen, this was wrong of you to do that. What is obligatory is to perform the prayers on time. Feeling too embarrassed to do ghusl is no excuse for delaying the prayer. You have to repent from that and pray for forgiveness. May Allaah help us and you to do all that is good.

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Fasting, - Doupht&clear, - * Ruling of non-Muslim Fasting

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When is the month of Ramadan and can someone like me fast properly? What time of the day am I supposed to fast?
The fact that you have concern with the blessed month of Ramadhan, are questioning it's arrival, and anticipating it, is very wonderful. It indicates that you are affected by this great Islamic worship, which consists of abstaining from food and drink, and sexual intercourse from fajr (the break of dawn), until maghrib ( the sunset) during the day of the noble month of Ramadhan.
As far as it's appointed time, my dear respected questioner, the laws of worship in Islam are scheduled according to proof which is clearly traceable and detectable. The evidence which is seen is not estimated. This entails the sighting of the moon, which indicates that the month of Ramadhan has begun. So, if we see the new moon, or it is established that someone amongst us has seen the new moon, then it becomes obligatory on the entire Muslim community to fast every day of this month, until we see the new moon for the following month of Shawwal and know that therefore Ramadhan has ended.
The month of Ramadhan on the Islamic calendar could be 29 or 30 days depending on the sighting of the physical proof, which is the new moon. According to the Christian calender, the approximate time of Ramadhan this year would occur on the 30th or 31st of December 1997.
In order for your fast to be correct and accepted, you must first enter Islam by testifying to Allah's Oneness and believing in the Prophet and following the laws of Islam. We would be happy to see you living a happy life with strong faith, and good years to come, spending them inspired by Islam. We ask Allah to protect you and guide you along.

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