Thank u for ur answer, but unfortunately it did not answer my
question.The thing is, that we have tried every possibleway there is
to satisfy me, we have talked alot about it, we read a whole lot about
it, but still havent been successful. Now my husband has said that
hewants me to masturbate after we have had intercourse, so that i
alsoget satisfied, because he is not able to do so in any which way.
But my question to u is: Am I allowed to masturbate after we have had
intercourse if my husband cannot satisfy me with any method at all? I
have my husbands permission. The only thing I need to know, is that if
it is allowed in Islam to do soif the husband is not able to satisfy
his wife atall?
I hope you will be able to help me, as this has started to effect our
marriage life.
Hello
I have been married for 3 years now and love myhusband very much. our
problem is that my husband cannot satisfy me sexually at all, not with
hand or anything else. We have tried all methods but it just doesnt
work. This has become a big issue in our marriage, and makes me wants
to masturbate as i dont get satisfied at all. My question to you is:
is it allowed for me to masturbate in order to satisfy myself to stay
happy in my marriage if nothing else is working?
Praise be to Allah.
Firstly:
The basic principle is that masturbation is haraam. Please see the
answer to question no. 329
That is only permitted if a person fears that he may end up committing
zina; no doubt the prohibition on zina is more emphatic, and it is
more abhorrent and reprehensible. Hence it is permissible to commit
the lesser of two evils so as to ward off the greater.
Ar-Ruhaybaani (may Allah have mercy on him) said: If a person, man or
woman, masturbates with no need to do so, that action is haraam and he
should be given a disciplinary punishment for it, because it is a sin.
But if he does it because he fears falling into zina or homosexuality,
or because he fears physical harm, then there is no punishment.
End quote from MataalibOoli an-Nuha Sharh Ghaayat al-Muntaha, 6/226
Al-Mirdaawi (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
We learn two things from this:
1. That masturbation isnot permissible except incases of necessity
2. The ruling for women on that matter isthe same as the ruling
for men, if a woman fears falling into zina.
This is the correct view, as stated in al-Furoo'.
End quote from al-Insaaf, 10/252
Secondly:
What the husband must do is give his wife her rights to kind
treatment.One of the most important matters to which he must pay
attention in that regard is keeping her chaste so that she will not
look at other men, and giving her her rights in matters of intimacy as
much as possible, even if that means using aphrodisiacs and paying
attention to nutrition.
If the husband reaches climax quickly, before his wife is satisfied,
thenhe has to try hard to stimulate her first, even if that is with
his hand or body, and not start to have intercourse until she is ready
for that, andthen she can reach climax through intercourse.
If the question is about masturbation with the hand, what difference
is there between the husband's hand or her own hand? Why can't hedo
that for her, and why should she do that herself?
What we think is that the husband should do that, and it is better if
it is before he has intercourse with her, then if she needs anything
else, he can stimulate her again afterhaving intercourse, so that her
needs will be met.
There is nothing wrong with him consulting a specialist doctor, if he
is suffering from any kind of problem.
And Allah knows best. - - ▓███▓ Translator:->
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