Wednesday, November 14, 2012

Does the Bible Teach ThatJesus is God?

All thanks are due to Allah; May Allah's blessings be on all of His
Prophets from Adam to Nu`h (Noah), Ibrahim (Abraham), Musa (Moses),and
`Esa (Jesus), and ending with Allah's Final and Last Prophet and
Messenger, Prophet Muhammad.
Islam teaches that `Esa (Jesus) the Masee`h (Messiah) is an
honorableprophet from Allah and that his mother Maryam (Mary) is, as
Prophet Muhammad described her, the best among the women of the world;
(Fat`h al-Bari). I bear witness that Prophet `Esa (Jesus) was born
miraculously, that he spoke in the cradle and declared Allah (I) as
the One and Only True Lord and Ilah (God),
{O, People of the Scripture (Christians)! Do not exceed the limits in
your religion, nor say of Allâh aught but the truth.The Messiah 'Îsâ
(Jesus), son of Maryam (Mary), was (no more than) a Messenger of Allâh
and His Word, ("Be!" — and he was) which He bestowed on Maryam (Mary)
and a spirit (Rûh) created by Him; so believe in Allâh and His
Messengers. Say not: "Three (trinity)!" Cease! (It is) better for you.
For Allâh is (the only) One Ilâh ('God'), glory is to Him (Far Exalted
is He) above having a son. To Him belong all that is in the heavens
and all that is in the earth. And Allâh is All-Sufficient as a
Disposer of affairs. The Messiah will never be proud to reject to be a
slave of Allâh, nor the angels who are the near (to Allâh).}
(4:171-172)
Question: Can you summarize the entire foundation of the religion of
Islam in abouta minute?
Answer: 'Yes, I can. Pleasestart counting the seconds.'
In one of his Hadeeths, Muhammad (r), the Prophet of Allah, mentioned
all six pillars of Eman, the Islamic Faith, when he (r) said that
'Eman' is,
" أَنْ تُؤْمِنَ بِاللَّهِ وَمَلاَئِكَتِهِ وَكُتُبِهِ وَرُسُلِهِ
وَالْيَوْمِ الآخِرِ وَتُؤْمِنَ بِالْقَدَرِ خَيْرِهِ وَشَرِّهِ "
"To believe in Allah, His Angels, His Books, His Messengers and in the
Last Day; and to believe in the al-Qadar (Predestination), both the
good and the evil it may bring" (Muslim).
Also, Muhammad (r), the Prophet of Islam, collected all five pillars
ofIslam in one statement, when he said,
" بُنِيَ الإِسْلاَمُ عَلَى خَمْسٍ شَهَادَةِ أَنْ لاَ إِلَهَ إِلاَّ
اللَّهُ وَأَنَّ مُحَمَّدًا رَسُولُ اللَّهِ وَإِقَامِ الصَّلاَةِ
وَإِيتَاءِ الزَّكَاةِ وَالْحَجِّ وَصَوْمِ رَمَضَانَ "
"Islam is based on (the following) five (principles): To testify that
there is no deity (owing the right to be worshipped) but Allah and
that Muhammad is Allah's Messenger; to offer the (compulsory) prayers
dutifully and perfectly; to pay Zakat (obligatory charity); to perform
Hajj (Pilgrimage to Makkah); and to fast during [the lunar month of]
Ramadan" (Bukhari and Muslim).
I am done! You see, Islamis built on the six pillars of Eman (Faith),
and Faithexists in the heart, affirmation of the faith with the
tongue, and performing the remaining four practical pillars of Islam.
This is a brief, clear, plain and most powerful creed. These
statements are found throughout the Quran and Prophetic Sunnah
Traditions. Thesefoundations, if embracedand practiced, make one a
faithful believer. This isthe entire foundation of the religion of
Islam. Really, I am done!
The Christian creed with regards to the nature of God is a mystery as
we often hear from advocates of the divinity of Jesus and his place in
the Christian Trinity, such as using this type of title: 'The
Incomprehensible Nature of God and his Son'. Agreed! The Christian
creed is incomprehensible, and a mystery. Firstly, no one can explain
what the divinity of Jesus really means or how this concept is
supposed to work within the Trinity, or where this concept came from
or where it is going. Secondly, how can billions of Christians
believe in a creed built on an elaborate scheme of, 'This could mean
that; that may mean this; probably; may be; it is possible; we could
say'; and so forth? This is where advocates of the divinity of Jesus
'glue together' a creed based on vague verses that are twisted and
corrupted to mean what they do not mean. Hence, advocates of
Christianity need long minutes and substantial effort to prove their
creed, because their creed does not exist to begin with. They need
substantial time and extensive effort to manufacture a creed based on
texts that are atbest vague and could mean a host of things. Can we
ask Christendom to simply quote Jesus as saying, 'People: I am God;I
created you; worship me; I am one in three andthree in one; worship
theHoly Ghost; the Holy Ghost is God; Trinity is thecreed to follow; I
am divine.' Instead, we always hear the usual blend of verses
distorted to force them to mean what they do not mean to support a
creed that does not exist in the Bible.
'Does the Bible Teach thatJesus is God?' There are five aspects to
discuss here found in the title itself: God; Jesus; The Bible;
'Twinity'; and God'sTrue Name.
Is Jesus God?
What is the Biblical proof that Jesus is God? Is it thesame old
evidence that mankind has been hearing from Christianity for almost
1,700 years? Evidence the Jews vehemently deny exists inthe OT, while
Muslims andcountless Christians vehemently deny it exists in the OT or
the NT? Let's discuss this so-called evidence. Inshaallah (Allah
willing), I will mention Biblical texts to prove that the Bible says
that Jesus is NOT God. Wewill assert this fact in different ways.
"God is not a man" (Numbers 23:19).
Agreed! Jesus is a man, as the Bible testifies, "Jesus of Nazareth, a
man" (Acts 2:22); "…and being found in fashion asa man" (Philippians
2:8). Therefore, according to the Bible, Jesus is not God.
"God is not a man … neither the son of man" (Numbers 23:19).
Agreed! Jesus, a man, so often said this about himself, "For the Son
of man is come to save that which was lost" (Matthew 18:11).
Therefore, according to the Bible, Jesus is not God, since God,
accordingto the Bible, is neither a man nor the son of man, while
Jesus is a man and the son of man, who was also often called in the
Bible, "The son of David" (Matthew 9:27).
"En arche en ho logos kaiho logos en pros ton theon kai Theos en ho
logos (In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and
the Word was God)" (John 1:1).
John 1:1 is celebrated by Christians worldwide. Does this verse
affirm thedivinity of Jesus, let aloneaffirming Trinity?
1. In the first instance, The God is described as, 'Ton Theon', while
the Word is described as being 'Theos'.
2. Key-Word: Twinity! The Holy Ghost is not found in John 1:1 yet
Christians somehow use it to prove Trinity. It seems that the Holy
Ghostwas not with The God and the Word from the beginning.
3. The Greek copy of the New Testament I have access to uses 'Theos'
in both instances where 'god' is mentioned in John 1:1. However, the
first instance of 'Theos' is preceded by 'Ho' which makes the
reference in it to The God; the second instance is not preceded by
'Ho', which makes the second 'theos' merely a god.
4. In the Bible Collection Suite, 'Theos' is the same term used to
describe both the devil and The God, "In whom the god (Ho Theos;
Satan) of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not,
lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of
God (Ho Theos), shouldshine unto them" (2 Corinthians 4:4). This
verse seems to equate the devil to The God; John 1:1 refers to the
Word merely as a god.
5. Somehow, to Christians, 'Theos' is God when talking about Jesus,
but 'theos' is only god when talking about the devil. This is the
never-ending capital letters vs. lower case letters game that the
modern day Christian world has engaged itself in.
6. However, Jesus did not speak Greek, did not speak in capital
letters or lower case letters, and did not speak English.
7. If, as we are told, John 1:1 qualifies Jesus to be a god besides
God, the devil would have more right to this title than Jesus: The
devil is the 'ho theos' of the world, whileJesus is merely a 'theos'.
None deserves to be worshipped, except Allah,Alone without partners.
"For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten
(Monogenes) Son (Huios),that whosoever believethin him should not
perish, but have everlasting life" (John 3:16).
The NT mentions this veryterm, 'Monogenes', while describing Prophet
Is`haq (Isaac u), son of Prophet Ibrahim (Abraham u), "By faith
Abraham, when he was tried, offered up Isaac: and he that had received
the promises offered up his only begotten son (Monogenes)" (Hebrews
11:17). Of course, Prophet Is`haq (Isaac u) was neither Ibrahim's
(Abraham's) only begotten son, nor his first begotten son; Prophet
Isma`eel (Ishmael u) was as the OT itself attests, "And Abram was
fourscore and six years old (86), when Hagar bare Ishmael to Abram"
(Genesis 16:16). In contrast, Genesis statesthis, "And Abraham was an
hundred years old, when his son Isaac was born unto him" (Genesis
21:5). Hajar (Hagar), the mother of Ishmael, was Abraham's wife as
Genesis 16:3 testifies.
'Monogenes' does not mean 'only begotten'. If, 'Monogenes', means
'the only begotten [KJV]', then, the current copy of the Old Testament
is wrong in describing Isaac as being the only begotten son of
Abraham; the same is said about the New Testament which used this term
to describe Isaac; (Hebrews 11:17). If'Monogenes' means 'only (New
Revised Standard Version of the Bible [NRSV])', this proves that both
the Old Testament and the New Testament were corrupted and changed:
the first for contradicting the fact that Isaac was not the only son
of Abraham, andthe second for being translated as meaning 'the only
begotten,' when 'Monogenes' only means, 'only'.
The NRSV has expunged 'begotten' from John 3:16, because it is an
addition; an innovation. The dispute about the true meaning of
'Monogenes' is irrelevant;Jesus did not speak Greek, and the author of
the Gospel of John is an unknown person who wrote what was never
before preached by any Prophet whom Allah sent. This alien idea should
not be allowed to overturn the clear Monotheism preached in the Two
Testaments and upheld by the Quran.
"For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word,
andthe Holy Ghost: and these three are one" (1 John 5:7).
1 John 5:7, a foundation of Christianity, is among the fabricated
texts added to the New Testament. The appearance and disappearance of
1 John 5:7 between the Standard and the King James Versions of the
Bible expose the little respect Christians have for their own holy
book. Even the versions of the Bible that kept this verse almost
intact translate it differently, especially the last part of it: "…and
these three are one"; "…and the three agree asone"; "…and the three
agree in one."
Before using this fabricated text, Christiansshould agree among
themselves on what is their true Word of God. Christendom has many
words of God, such as theAmerican Standard Version of the Bible, which
does not have this verse exactly as other words of God do. The
Revised Standard Version, The New RevisedStandard Version, The New
American Standard Bible, The New English Bible, The Phillips
ModernEnglish Bible have expunged this verse altogether from their
versions of the Bible because it is agreed now that it was a later
insertion to the Bible by the church.
Absolutely no one before John wrote this verse ever uttered any
statement like it. Not even Jesus said this. No prophet ever said
this. This is why it is a fabrication that should not be used as
evidence to anything.
The answering Islam team agrees that the KJV contains at least an
error,by saying, "This passage is recognized by a majority of
Christian scholars as an extrapolation since 1 John 5:7 is not found
in any early Greek manuscripts." Yet, this verse still exists today
in the most popular version of the Christian Word of God, the KJV.
"I and my father are one"(John 10:30).
Christians claim that this statement proves that Jesus is one or
united with God and, consequently, Jesus is God. However, when Jesus
died, he did not give up the Father, he only gave up the ghost, "And
Jesus cried with a loud voice, and gave up the ghost" (Mark 15:37).
This claimed unity was not available to Jesus when he died; what
happened to this unity and why did not the Father die when Jesus died,
if Jesus and the Father are one? Hopefully, no one will claim that
when Jesus said that he and the Father are one, it was Jesus the human
not Jesus the divine who saidit. It this is suggested, then one would
be saying that God is human. And where is theHoly Ghost in John
10:30? He is missing, again. Key-Word: Twinity!
It seems the unity between God and Jesus can include many more people.
Jesus is claimed to have said, "That they all may be one; as thou,
Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us:
that the world may believe that thou hast sent me. And the glory which
thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are
one: I in them, and thou in me, that they may be made perfect in one"
(John 17:21-23). If, as weare told, John 10:30 proves that Jesus is
God, then, John 17:21-23 prove that the disciples and possibly many
other people are also God. Also, if God and Jesus are one, why would
Jesus keep calling himself, 'My God': "I ascend to my Father and your
Father, and to my God and your God" (John 20:17)? The Quran states
that Prophet`Esa said,
{Never did I say to them aught except what You (Allâh I) did command
meto say: "Worship Allâh, myLord and your Lord." And I was a witness
over them while I dwelt amongst them, but when You took me up, You
were the Watcher over them; and You are a Witness to all things.}
(5:117)
"Jesus said … Before Abraham was, I AM" (John8:58).
Christians try to pass this verse as proof of the divinity of Jesus.
However, this hardly proves anything, whether 'I am' is written in
capital or lower case letters. Jesus did not speak Greek, and he did
not speak in capital letters or in English. The first handwritten
English Bible manuscripts were produced in the late fourteenth century
by John Wycliffe, more than thirteen centuries after Jesus supposedly
died.
We should also note that in the Greek copy of the Bible, the terms
'Ego (eg-o') Eimi (i-mee')' usedfor 'I AM' in John 8:58 are the same
terms used by other than Jesus, such as in Matthew 9:13. Yet, some
Christians ignore this fact and talk about the 'I AM' of Jesus being
translated in capital letters. What if Jesus said, 'I AM', or 'I IS',
or, 'I ARE', how would one of these make him God?
What about what Jesus said in truth, where is it? Produce the real
original copy of what he said in the language he said it in, as
recorded by truthful witnesses who passed this information through
truthful chains of narration. Instead, theadvocates of the divinity
of Jesus base their religion on doubt and suspicion, and neither
Christians nor Jews can produce any exact replicaof any page in the OT
or the NT.
"For thou art not a God that hath pleasure in wickedness: neither
shall evil dwell with thee" (Psalm 5:4).
Shocking proof that Jesusis not God: "Then was Jesus led up of the
Spirit into the wilderness to be tempted of the devil. Andwhen he had
fasted fortydays and forty nights, he was afterward an hungered. And
when the tempter came to him, he said, If thou be the Son ofGod,
command that thesestones be made bread. But he answered and said, It
is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that
proceedeth out of the mouth of God. Then the devil taketh him up into
the holy city, and setteth him on a pinnacleof the temple. And saith
unto him, If thou be the Son of God, cast thyself down ... Jesus said
unto him, It is written again, Thou shalt not tempt the Lord thy God.
Again, the devil taketh him up into an exceeding high mountain, and
showeth him all the kingdoms of the world, and the glory of them. And
saith unto him, All these things will Igive thee, if thou wilt fall
down and worship me. Then saith Jesus unto him, Get thee hence, Satan:
for it is written, Thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and him only
shalt thou serve. Then the devil leaveth him, and, behold, angels came
and ministered unto him." (Matthew 4:1-11)
If mankind were to believe that Jesus is God, then the devil is a
bigger god, since he tempted 'God', led 'God' around, asked 'God' to
commit suicide, offered 'God', who owns everything to begin with, the
kingdoms of the world, and then demanded that 'God' worship him!
Meanwhile, Jesus never said to the devil, 'How dare you; I am God; do
you offer me the kingdoms which I own and then demand that I, who
created you and everything else, worship you?' Jesus cannot be God
according to the Bible, since God cannot be tempted by evil; Jesus was
tempted by the devil as the Bible claims.
Either way it looks bad: Someone may suggest that Jesus the human, who
was then disconnected from Jesus the divine, was actually tempted by
the devil. This is worse; this means that God has a selective
amnesia, and Jesus the man was still led by the devil.
"The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make
thine enemies thy footstool" (Psalm 110:1).
Christian enthusiasts on Psalm 110:1, "Christians believe that Jesus
is David's Lord since he is the Christ. And since Yahweh is David's
Lord, Jesus must therefore be Yahweh God." So, the Lord spoke to
himself and said, 'My-self, sit at my right hand until I make my
enemies a footstool for my feet." And what happened to the Holy
Ghost? Key-Word: Twinity, Jesus and God!
A Christian view on Psalm110:1, "The words in Hebrew … the above
version translates LORD and Lord are actually Yahweh and Adoni, two
different words with twoobviously different meanings."

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And Allah Knows the Best!

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Published by :->
M NajimudeeN Bsc- INDIA

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